I'm struggling to understand why the curl of this magnetic vector field would be zero:
$$B(x,y,z)=\left(\frac{-y}{(x^2+y^2)},\frac{x}{(x^2+y^2)},0\right)$$
This cartesian field was derived from the equation for a long, straight current carrying wire, with current flowing on the Z axis. I found this derivation here. Note that I removed the constants for simplicity ($\frac{\mu_0*I}{2\pi}$)
If I plot this field (shown in x-y Plane), it looks obvious that it should have curl; since the magnitude of the field lines increase approaching the center, any point in this graph should "spin" clockwise. I realize that this is an intuitive definition of curl, so please correct me if I'm wrong for using it.
Also, since this equation was derived from a magnetic field equation, barring any computation error, this HAS TO have curl from Ampere's/Maxwell's Law: $$\nabla X B=\frac{1}{c}\left(4\pi J + \frac{dE}{dt}\right)$$ In the constant current example, $\frac{dE}{dt}=0$, but current density $J$ is proportional to current and distance from the wire.
However, when I calculate the curl of this it results with zero:
$$[-2*\frac{x^2}{(x^2 + y^2)^2} - 2*\frac{y^2}{(x^2 + y^2)^2} + \frac{2}{(x^2 + y^2)}]\hat k=0$$
If anyone could help out mistakes or poor assumptions made here, I would greatly appreciate it!