Given a function $f(t)$, is it possible to construct Lagrangian $\mathcal{L}$ such that $\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}t}\frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial \dot{f}}=\frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial f}$, when solved with appropriate boundary conditions, gives $f(t)$.
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Possible duplicate: https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/20298/2451 and links therein. – Qmechanic Jun 05 '21 at 07:45
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Yes, just take $\mathcal{L}(t, x, \dot x) = (x - f(t))^2$, since:
- The action $S[x] = \int \mathcal{L}(t, x(t),\dot x(t)) dt = \int (x(t) - f(t))^2 dt $ is minimized for $x(t) = f(t)$, since it is non-negative for any $x(t)$, and zero only for $x(t) = f(t)$.
- Euler-Lagrange gives $$ 0 = \frac{d}{dt} \frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial \dot x} = \frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial x} = 2 (x(t) - f(t))$$

megaleo
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