In Quantum Mechanics, a translation by a distance $a$ is given by $\hat T(a)$-
$$\hat T(a) \psi(x)=\psi(x-a)$$ which shifts the graph towards the right by a distance $a$.
When we want to find the explicit form of the above transformation, we expand $\psi(x-a)$ in a Taylor series about the point $x$-
$$\psi(x-a)=\sum_{n=0}^\infty \dfrac{(-a)^n}{n!}\dfrac{d^n}{dx^n}\ \psi(x)$$
Using the fact that $\hat p\equiv-i\hbar\dfrac{d}{dx}$, we get-
$$\psi(x-a)=\sum_{n=0}^\infty \dfrac{(-ia/\hbar)^n}{n!} \hat p^n\ \psi(x)$$
We see that RHS is the definition of- $\exp \Big(\dfrac{-ia\hat p}{\hbar}\Big) \psi(x)$
and thus we conclude $\hat T(a) \equiv\exp \Big(\dfrac{-ia\hat p}{\hbar}\Big)$
My doubt is that: In general the radius of convergence of any function in a Taylor series expansion about a point is finite, so the above proof tells us that $|a|$ can not be arbitrarily large. Why then, do we keep using the above generator for any value of $a$. My guess is that for well behaved functions, which $\psi$s obviously are, the radius of convergence is almost always large enough to talk about a sensible taylor series approximation.
Any help is appreciated.