I am currently reading through Weinberg's Lectures on Quantum Mechanics. Chapter 11 deals with field theory:
Correspondingly, the Lagrangian $L(t)$ is a functional of $\psi_n(\vec{x}, t)$ and $\dot{\psi}_n(\vec{x}, t)$, depending on the form of all of the functions $\psi_n(x, t)$ and $\dot{\psi}_n(x, t)$ for all $\vec{x}$, but at a fixed time $t$.
I understand the statement above in the following way: the Lagrangian, as a functional, takes the fields $\psi_n$ and $\dot{\psi}_n$ and a specific value of $t$ as input and produces some output that is not dependent of $\vec{x}$.
Is this "interpretation" correct and if not, what else does is mean? At least it would make sense to me, especially when the Lagrangian is defined as
$L(t) = \int \, d^3x \cal{L}\big(\psi(\vec{x},t), \vec{\nabla}\psi(\vec{x},t),\dot{\psi}(\vec{x},t)\big)$.