In terms, which someone with a background in chemical physics & quantum chemistry might understand, what is the evidence that the strong force, across whatever its range is, follows something other than an inverse square law?
a) Specifically, as when the strong force is is said to be "~137" times the strength of the electromagnetic force, and the "~137" factor derives from the expression for the fine structure constant, which 1) explicitly is a function of electric charge squared, and 2) explicitly comprises the constant for the electromagnetic inverse law expression.
b) All fundamental are conservative and the only $1/r^n$ force function that is conservative is the $1/r^2$ force function, which is the inverse square law.
c) Do not a) and b) imply that over whatever range the strong force occurs that it obeys the inverse force law, and as regardless of charges of interacting particles, the strong force is attractive, that the strong force then is proportionate to (-)absolute value of the product of the electric charge of the interacting particles?