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I apologize if this question ends up being too basic, but I couldn't find the answer by myself and I'm sure you can help me.

In quantum mechanics, one takes a complex Hilbert space $\mathscr{H}$ as the state space, i.e. elements $\psi \in \mathscr{H}$ of norm one describe quantum systems. Most of the time, it is enough to take $\mathscr{H} = L^{2}(\mathbb{R}^{3};\mathbb{C})$, so let's focus on this case. A state is then a complex-valued and square-integrable function $\psi = \psi({\bf{x}})$. Now, my problem arises when time-dependence is considered. The time-evolution of a state $\psi$ is a one-parameter unitary group $U(t)$ which, by Stone's Theorem, can always be written as $U(t) = e^{-itH}$, where $H$ is the Hamiltonian of the system. The time-evolved state is then: $$\psi(t,{\bf{x}}) = U(t)\psi({\bf{x}}) \tag{1}\label{1}$$ Now, for each $t \in \mathbb{R}^{+} := [0,+\infty)$, equation (\ref{1}) makes sense so the time-evolved state is a function of both $t$ and ${\bf{x}}$ so it looks like an element of $L^{2}(\mathbb{R}^{+}\times \mathbb{R}^{3};\mathbb{C})$, not of $L^{2}(\mathbb{R}^{3};\mathbb{C})$. But the state space was assumed to be $L^{2}(\mathbb{R}^{3};\mathbb{C})$. So, where is the gap? Shouldn't one take $\mathscr{H} = L^{2}(\mathbb{R}^{+}\times \mathbb{R}^{3};\mathbb{C})$ right from the start?

In addition, what is the difference between this picture and the Heisenberg's picture? In Schrödinger's picture the states are time-dependent. In Heisenberg's picture, the operators should be time dependent: an operator $A$ on $\mathscr{H}$ is evolved in time by $A(t) = U(t)AU(t)^{-1}$. But when applied to a state $\psi \in \mathscr{H}$, the state $\psi$ becomes time-dependent $\psi(t,{\bf{x}}) = A(t)\psi({\bf{x}})$ and it looks like we're back to the first scenario, where the states depend on time and the state space should be $L^{2}(\mathbb{R}^{+}\times \mathbb{R}^{3};\mathbb{C})$. But isn't it Schödinger's picture, instead of Heisenberg's?

Qmechanic
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IamWill
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    "Most of the time, it is sufficient to take $\mathcal{H} = L^2\left(\mathbb{R}^3;\mathbb{C}\right)$" suggests to me that this restricted space pertains specifically to time independent solutions as you suggested the contradiction to have arisen. Also, first time I've ever heard it call state space, but i guess it's valid terminology. – Thormund Aug 05 '21 at 15:52
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    Related.. In fact, I think the given answer there answers all your questions. – Tobias Fünke Aug 05 '21 at 15:53
  • Possible duplicate: https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/237359/2451 – Qmechanic Aug 05 '21 at 16:30
  • @Qmechanic the linked post answers the first part of my question, but the second part is still unanswered. Could you reopen it, please? – IamWill Aug 05 '21 at 17:43
  • To reopen this post (v2) consider to only ask 1 question per post. – Qmechanic Aug 05 '21 at 18:11

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