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The Schrödinger equation is $$i \hbar \frac{\partial}{\partial t} \Psi(\mathbf{r}, t)=-\frac{\hbar^{2}}{2 m} \nabla^{2} \Psi(\mathbf{r}, t)+V(\mathbf{r}) \Psi(\mathbf{r}, t).$$

Under the coordinate transformation $r\rightarrow r'$ the Schrödinger equation goes to $$i \hbar \frac{\partial}{\partial t} \Psi'(\mathbf{r'}, t)=-\frac{\hbar^{2}}{2 m} \nabla'^{2} \Psi'(\mathbf{r'}, t)+V(\mathbf{r'}) \Psi(\mathbf{r'}, t). \tag 2$$

Now, since the position $r$ operator and the momentum operator are independent, coordinate transformations should not affect the momentum operator $p$. But, as we saw in $(2)$, the so-called coordinate transformations affect the momentum operator.

My question is: are coordinate transformations in quantum mechanics unitary transformations of the position operator?

Cosmas Zachos
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amilton moreira
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1 Answers1

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Operators in QM don't depend on coordinates, so changing coordinates does not affect them in the least; which is why your (2) is off. Recall how you handle Schroedinger's equation in polar coordinates. Stick to one dimension for simplicity.

The proper, operator, TDSE is $$ \left (-i\hbar \partial_t + \frac{\hat p ^2}{2m} +V(\hat x) \right ) |\Psi(t)\rangle =0 \tag{1}, $$ which, dotted by $\langle x|$, yields your first TDSE in coordinate space, $$ i \hbar \partial_t\langle x|\Psi(t)\rangle= \langle x| \frac{\hat p ^2}{2m} |\Psi(t)\rangle + \langle x|V(\hat x)|\Psi(t)\rangle \tag{1a}\\ i \hbar \partial_t \Psi( x, t)=-\tfrac{\hbar^{2}}{2 m} \partial_x ^{2} \Psi( x, t)+V(x) \Psi( x, t).$$

Under a coordinate transformation $ x\rightarrow x'= x'(x)$, this PDE is equivalent to $$i \hbar \partial_t \Psi( x', t)=-\tfrac{\hbar^{2}}{2 m} \partial_{x'} ^{2} \Psi( x', t)+V(x') \Psi( x', t) ~. \tag 2$$ The first term (kinetic) on the r.h.side can also be rewritten as $$ -\tfrac{\hbar^{2}}{2 m} \partial_{x'} ^{2} \Psi( x', t) = -\tfrac{\hbar^{2}}{2 m} \left (\frac{1}{\partial_x x'(x)} ~ \partial_{x} \right )^{2} \Psi( x'(x), t) , \tag{3} $$ on which you might practice with a simple example.

But this is exactly what you would have gotten by dotting (1) by $\langle x'(x)|$.


Edit as per comments, which have taken a left turn and point to a very different question, on canonical transformations. For the 2D polar coordinate question asked, however, the change of variable $(x,y) \to (r=\sqrt{x^2+y^2}, \phi =\arctan(y,x))$, (3) goes to the generalization $$ -\tfrac{\hbar^{2}}{2 m}(\partial_{x} ^{2}+ \partial_{y} ^{2})= -\tfrac{\hbar^{2}}{2 m} \left (\partial_r^2+\frac{1}{r}\partial_r + \frac{1}{r^2}\partial_\phi^2 \right )^{2} , $$ and you have a plain change of coordinates.

As stated above, $$ \hat x |r,\phi\rangle = r\cos\phi ~|r,\phi\rangle, ... \hbox{etc.} $$ To be sure, you could define formal operators such as $$ \hat r\equiv \sqrt{\hat x ^2 + \hat y ^2}, \implies ~~ \hat r |r,\phi\rangle= r|r,\phi\rangle, $$ but, as indicated in the linked answer, operators of angular variables (skipped here) are beset with formal problems revolving around hermiticity, so some wise bypass them.

Cosmas Zachos
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  • What I am asking if the operator transformation $\hat x \rightarrow \hat x '$ is unitary – amilton moreira Aug 19 '21 at 13:31
  • As I said, you did not change any operator: only the coordinates of its eigenvalues. You might be thinking about unitary canonical transformations, but you are barking up the very very wrong tree! The coordinate-free TDSE never changed. – Cosmas Zachos Aug 19 '21 at 13:54
  • we are in two dimension with the position operators $\hat x$ and $\hat y $ isn't this transformation $\hat r=\sqrt{\hat x\hat x+\hat y\hat y}$ $\hat \varphi=\operatorname{atan} (\hat y, \hat x)$ a valid transformation? – amilton moreira Aug 19 '21 at 14:00
  • @ Cosmas Zachos I am not understanding you since in quantum mechanics coordinates are operators so changing coordinates should be changing operators – amilton moreira Aug 19 '21 at 14:13
  • To change to polar coordinates, you are not to change the operators in this coordinate transformation: you are merely changing the coordinates. Are you familiar with (1) and how the (1a) coordinate representation of it follows? Coordinates are not operators. Start with matrix mechanics which defines the theory. – Cosmas Zachos Aug 19 '21 at 14:13
  • @ Cosmas Zachos I will post this comments as a question – amilton moreira Aug 19 '21 at 14:30
  • @ Cosmas Zachos I think what you mean is this. $\hat x $ and $\hat y$ Position operators in cartesian coordinates while $\hat r$ and $\hat \theta$ are position operator in polar coordinates.... – amilton moreira Aug 19 '21 at 14:36
  • .... they give the point where the particle is in space. But the first set give it in cartesian coordinates while the second give it in polar coordinates ,is it this that you mean? – amilton moreira Aug 19 '21 at 14:40
  • No! You somehow decided you transform operators. You don't. You transform the coordinate representations of the standard operators. You stay with $\hat x, \hat y$, but you change the coordinates of the states, as detailed above, which represent these operators through their matrix elements! – Cosmas Zachos Aug 19 '21 at 17:01
  • I am following this article https://journals.aps.org/pr/abstract/10.1103/PhysRev.85.653 if you have time take a look on it – amilton moreira Aug 19 '21 at 17:06
  • Sorry, I don't like the fact the author does not contrast operators to the coordinates, eigenvalues of some of them. You have been confused by his sloppiness, and I don't read the question as relevant to it. You might go through the paper placing \hat s over the operators, to dramatize the difference. I fear the paper entails a very-very-very different question... it discusses canonical transformations of operators, not coordinate changes. – Cosmas Zachos Aug 19 '21 at 17:15
  • So how $\hat x $ would act in the state $|r\rangle |\theta\rangle$? What I mean is $|r\rangle |\theta\rangle$ an engeinstate of $\hat x $?What is eingenvalue? – amilton moreira Aug 19 '21 at 17:25
  • The eigenvalues of $\hat x$ and $\hat y$ on $|r,\theta\rangle$ are $r\cos\theta$ and $r\sin\theta$, respectively. – Cosmas Zachos Aug 19 '21 at 17:50
  • So what is the operator that would $\hat K$ that would give us eigenvalue $\theta$ when acting on the state $|r,\theta\rangle$? – amilton moreira Aug 19 '21 at 17:53
  • There are answers on this site, but phase operators are troubled; this question here is orthogonal to the comment, though! – Cosmas Zachos Aug 19 '21 at 18:35