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Professor Achim Kempf in his lecture note mentioned that non-commutativity of quantum observables in the associated Poisson algebra to the system, impose CCR

It was Dirac who first realized that all of the Poisson algebra structure that we defined above can be kept (and therefore the ability to derive the equations of motion), while changing one little thing: allowing the symbols $ \hat{x}_{i}^{(r)}(t) $ and $ \hat{p}_{i}^{(r)}(t) $ to be noncommutative, though only in a particular way. Consistency with the Poisson algebra structure imposes strict conditions on the form that this noncommutativity can take. Namely, following Dirac, let us consider the Poisson bracket$$\left\{\hat{u}_{1} \hat{u}_{2}, \hat{v}_{1} \hat{v}_{2}\right\}\tag{3.3}$$where $ \hat{u}_{1}, \hat{u}_{2}, \hat{v}_{1}, \hat{v}_{2} $ are arbitrary polynomials in the variables $ \hat{x}_{i}^{(r)} $ and $ \hat{p}_{j}^{(s)} $. Expression Eq.3.3 can be evaluated in two ways and, of course, any noncommutativity of the $ \hat{x}_{i}^{(r)} $ and $ \hat{p}_{j}^{(s)} $ has to be such that both ways yield the same outcome:$$\begin{aligned}[t]\left\{\hat{u}_{1} \hat{u}_{2}, \hat{v}_{1} \hat{v}_{2}\right\} &=\hat{u}_{1}\left\{\hat{u}_{2}, \hat{v}_{1} \hat{v}_{2}\right\}+\left\{\hat{u}_{1}, \hat{v}_{1} \hat{v}_{2}\right\} \hat{u}_{2} \\&=\hat{u}_{1}\left(\hat{v}_{1}\left\{\hat{u}_{2}, \hat{v}_{2}\right\}+\left\{\hat{u}_{2}, \hat{v}_{1}\right\} \hat{v}_{2}\right)+\left(\hat{v}_{1}\left\{\hat{u}_{1}, \hat{v}_{2}\right\}+\left\{\hat{u}_{1}, \hat{v}_{1}\right\} \hat{v}_{2}\right) \hat{u}_{2}\end{aligned}\tag{3.4}$$This must agree with:$$\begin{aligned}[t]\left\{\hat{u}_{1} \hat{u}_{2}, \hat{v}_{1} \hat{v}_{2}\right\} &=\hat{v}_{1}\left\{\hat{u}_{1} \hat{u}_{2}, \hat{v}_{2}\right\}+\left\{\hat{u}_{1} \hat{u}_{2}, \hat{v}_{1}\right\} \hat{v}_{2} \\&=\hat{v}_{1}\left(\hat{u}_{1}\left\{\hat{u}_{2}, \hat{v}_{2}\right\}+\left\{\hat{u}_{1}, \hat{v}_{2}\right\} \hat{u}_{2}\right)+\left(\hat{u}_{1}\left\{\hat{u}_{2}, \hat{v}_{1}\right\}+\left\{\hat{u}_{1}, \hat{v}_{1}\right\} \hat{u}_{2}\right) \hat{v}_{2}\end{aligned}\tag{3.5}$$Thus:$$\left\{\hat{u}_{1}, \hat{v}_{1}\right\}\left(\hat{v}_{2} \hat{u}_{2}-\hat{u}_{2} \hat{v}_{2}\right)=\left(\hat{v}_{1} \hat{u}_{1}-\hat{u}_{1} \hat{v}_{1}\right)\left\{\hat{u}_{2}, \hat{v}_{2}\right\}\tag{3.6}$$Since this has to hold for all possible choices of $ \hat{u}_{1}, \hat{u}_{2}, \hat{v}_{1}, \hat{v}_{2} $, we require all expressions $ \hat{u}, \hat{v} $ in the position and momentum variables to obey:$$\hat{v} \hat{u}-\hat{u} \hat{v}=k\{\hat{u}, \hat{v}\}\tag{3.7}$$Here, $ k $ must be independent of $ \hat{u} $ and $ \hat{v} $ and must be commuting with everything. But what value does $ k $ take?

Can it be considered as origin of the canonical quantization procedure?

ZeroTheHero
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    Related: https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/711882/2451 , https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/19770/2451 and links therein. – Qmechanic Aug 31 '21 at 11:28
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    Quantization following this procedure is known to eventually fail (Gronewold’s theorem, see https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/561430/) so while it is possibly a strong hint of canonical quantization it cannot be the whole story. See also https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/345859/36194 – ZeroTheHero Aug 31 '21 at 11:38
  • In our world, $k=\hbar$, and could be different in other worlds. But be advised (3.7) is either ill defined (involving derivatives w.r.t. noncommutative objects, so your gambit identity works), or a tautology of the small k limit. This is not an efficient framing of quantization. You might try to bypass this agony by working in phase-space quantization. – Cosmas Zachos Aug 31 '21 at 13:30

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