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We often talk about the various possible positions a particle can have upon measurement according to the probability density. But owing to the profound link of space and time in relativity, why do you never hear of possible temporal superpositions?

mebaker
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    I think someone will eventually dive in a more complete answer, so I'll just comment that in non-relativistic QM time is only a parameter, and it is in a conceptually different role than space. Hence, standard QM courses won't come close to time superpositions, as they are not attempting at being relativistic. I'm guessing there could be some sort of time superposition in relativistic settings, but since I'm not sure of the details I'll let someone else tackle it – Níckolas Alves Sep 08 '21 at 22:49

5 Answers5

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I don't think this question has an exciting answer.

Strictly speaking, superposition refers to a wavefunction occupying multiple states at a particular time, so the question you've asked is "why can't you have multiple times at the same time", to which the answer is just:

given: $n>1$

then: $n \neq 1$


So, what if we just switch axes, and define superposition of times to mean a wavefunction occupying states at different times at a particular place?

The wavefunction is already defined as $\psi(x,t)$, so... we're done. The information about multiple states at different times is already there, no extra steps required.

Moving beyond a wavefunction, there's also nothing particularly quantum mechanical about an object existing in multiple times in the same place (this just describes any elapsed time for which average velocity was zero). "Superposition of times" in this regard is just our everyday experience of how location works.

Nor is there anything mysterious about multiple quantum states of the same object at different times. A photon interacts with an atom, an electron is promoted to a higher energy state at $t_0$, then decays to a lower energy state at some time t. There is a certain probability of decaying to the lower energy state at every given time $t>t_0$, all in (more or less) the same place.

g s
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    What if we take a classic double slit situation and then fire a stream of particles one at a time. If the particles are released with a time gap that is sufficient that a classical particle would have enough time to strike the screen before the next one is released, can the first particle still have a backward effect on the wavefunction of the next incoming particle? – mebaker Sep 09 '21 at 16:03
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    I'm a bit out on a limb here, but as far as I know: If we watch the screen for a flash before we shoot the next particle, no, the first wave function has already collapsed to a set of eigenvalues. If we just wait a time equal to the distance divided by the average speed of particles between shots, yes, occasionally, since the uncertainty principle means that we can't actually know exactly when and how fast the particles were released. I don't see the relevance, though. – g s Sep 09 '21 at 17:46
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    The trouble here is $\psi(x, t)$ does not represent a space-time probability density but rather a time history of a space probability density. Difference is that you can't square-integrate over all space-time and get 1. Indeed, you'll likely get $\infty$. – The_Sympathizer Sep 11 '21 at 00:39
  • @mebaker But the superposition isn't with a different particle, it's with a different eigenstate. And since all the particles in a double slit experiment start with being in a superposition of going through slit 1 as well 2, we will see interference even if particles are shot after a gap of even days. Experiments are done keeping in mind that they eliminate the possibility that multiple particles interact with each other before reaching the screen. Allan Adams has a beautiful take on the subject here: https://youtu.be/lZ3bPUKo5zc – Shailesh Pincha Sep 15 '21 at 01:53
  • In the 2018 edition of his pop-sci book titled "The Order of Time", the noted quantum physicist Carlo Rovelli makes the interesting observation that time "blurs" our view of reality, which is a viewpoint that seems contrary to the relativistic use of it in coordinate systems, but, nevertheless, seems to help in understanding the relation (often counter-intuitive) between phase space and physical space. – Edouard Sep 17 '21 at 16:01
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A permanent particle in the schrödinger picture

First, consider a stable particle. The picture below shows two possible worldlines for the particle, one in blue and one in green:

enter image description here

Now, consider a quantum superposition of these two possibilities. In the schrödinger picture, the state is parameterized by time. In a relativistic model, a state is associated with a spacelike hypersurface. Two different spacelike hypersurfaces are shown in the figure, one represented by the solid black line, and another represented by the dashed black line. Both of these spacelike hypersurfaces necessarily intersect both of the worldlines somewhere, so in both cases we would describe the state as representing a particle in a superposition of two different positions. The two hypersurfaces have different notions of which events are simultaneous, just like in classical special relativity, but no matter which frame we consider, we always have a superposition of different positions.

A temporary particle in the schrödinger picture

Instead of a stable particle that always existed, consider a particle (say, a muon) that is produced through the decay of some other particle and then lives only a short time. I won't re-draw the picture because it should be obvious: by considering a superposition of two different positions for the parent particle, we can end up with a superposition like $$ |\text{the muon exists now}\rangle + |\text{the muon doesn't exist yet}\rangle. $$ Even if the time-of-decay would be independent of the parent particle's location in one frame, it won't be independent of the parent particle's location in other frames.

A temporary particle in the heisenberg picture

In the schrödinger picture, we might not feel comfortable calling that a "superposition of time windows in which the muon exists." But now consider the heisenberg picture, where all time-dependence is carried by the observables instead of by the state. Then the state is not associated with any particular spacelike hypersurface. It describes something more like the whole history of the system. Different places/times are probed by considering different observables instead of by considering different states.$^\dagger$

$^\dagger$ Since we're considering relativistic quantum theory, we should use quantum field theory. In quantum field theory, observables are not tied to particles. Observables are tied to spacetime instead.

In this case, describing the state as a superposition of time-windows in which the muon exists makes more sense. It's not a superposition of different times, because time is just a parameter. It's not a superposition of different places, either, for the same reason. In quantum field theory in the heisenberg picture, time and space are both used only to parameterize the theory's observables. What we're describing is a superposition of two different physical situations, one in which the muon exists only in one region of spacetime and another in which it exists only in a different region of spacetime: $$ |\text{the muon exists only in $A$}\rangle + |\text{the muon exists only in $B$}\rangle, $$ where $A$ and $B$ are two different regions of spacetime.

This illustrates a general rule: if we want to think of time and space more symmetrically, then we should use a formalism that treats them more symmetrically. Quantum field theory in the heisenberg picture does exactly that.

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    Thank you very much for this reply, it gets to the heart of what I was asking without having to go into asking a follow up question. Thanks to the other answers as well, they are largely what I was thinking too, but I was using it as a jumping off point. – mebaker Sep 09 '21 at 15:39
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A particle can be in a superposition of different states. Superposition of positions is not really a thing in our models.

When measuring a particle's position, you get a spread of values even in a pure state in the general case -- but that is not called superposition!

OK, so now you may ask, do we get a spread of values when measuring a particle's time? Well, to answer that we need to know what exactly do you mean by measuring a particle's time. We need the description of your experimental setup.

g.kertesz
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Short and intuitively (since I'm not a physicist):

Superposition at one point in time means that an object could be at multiple locations, at one given point in time (or in other words: we don't know where it is right now, or instead of tracking a fixed x/y/z location for the object, we keep track of a complex probability distribution).

Superposition at one point in space would mean that a particle could enter a specific location in space at multiple times.

The first case is interesting, mostly because it is a quantum effect which contradicts our real life, every day experiences, and because it is much more complicated in mathematical terms.

The second case is uninteresting because it is trivial. Things move around, and both in the quantum world as well as our macro world, can return to the same location they were in before.

AnoE
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  • Well... usually time is an organized thing. Having a superposition would mean that the particle could coalesce at a different point of time. There is no reason that couldn't be in the past. Which would be a bit confounding and challenge at least my view on the Natural Order of Things, i.e Causality. – Stian Sep 10 '21 at 08:16
  • @StianYttervik, sure... also probably depends on what one's philosophical view is on what time "is", anyways. – AnoE Sep 10 '21 at 09:32
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    @StianYttervik that is also not interesting. If it coalesced in the past we'd know about it. Today there is a tennis ball on my desk. It is in a superposition of today and tomorrow. It collapsed into the today state. Tomorrow: now there is no tennis ball on my desk. It is in a superposition of today and yesterday and it coalesced yesterday. Interesting? No. I saw it yesterday. I bought it yesterday and took it home after work. I could have bought it today but I chose yesterday by measuring some radioactive decay. – user253751 Sep 10 '21 at 09:59
  • @user253751 Thats a relatively straight forward one. The confusing one is when it appeared on your desk today after you purchased it tomorrow. – Stian Sep 10 '21 at 10:01
  • @StianYttervik "today, after tomorrow" is a contradiction. – user253751 Sep 10 '21 at 10:03
  • @user253751 Exactly. – Stian Sep 10 '21 at 10:04
  • @StianYttervik the superposition is that I either purchased it today and it was on my desk today and I took it home today, or I will do those things tomorrow. – user253751 Sep 10 '21 at 10:05
  • @user253751 If you can have a temporal superposition then it inhabits both simultaneously, which could lead to effects that come before their cause - since the cause is a superposition of sometime now and sometime later. The bomb detector thought experiment is funky and it gets twice as funky if you consider a temporal superposition. – Stian Sep 10 '21 at 10:07
  • @StianYttervik "simultaneously" means "at the same time" so we get back to "g s"'s answer: something cannot happen at two different times at the same time, by definition. This is also an uninteresting tautology. – user253751 Sep 10 '21 at 10:09
  • @user253751, I am not quite sure what you wish to say in regards to my answer. Is it plain wrong or just too simplistic? The latter is intended. As far as I know, and all other answers seem to agree, there is no useful concept of "temporal superposition" in physics, neither in our theories nor in reality, and my answer tries to explain easily (without particularly deep physical terms) why that is. If you have input on how to improve the answer, I'd be more than happy to be educated... – AnoE Sep 10 '21 at 10:27
  • @StianYttervik "inhabiting two different times simultaneously" is a logical contradiction - it cannot happen. It is like saying "inhabiting two different locations at the same location". Or "a single-coloured object which is red and blue and green" – user253751 Sep 10 '21 at 10:28
  • @user253751 That is a very fine point, disregard the use of that particular word. The idea is that if something can exist in a superposition of now and yesterday, there are things that exist as a superposition of tomorrow and now (by extension). The nature of superposition then means that a future cause can have an effect today. Which is what confounded me in the first place. It would both violate causality and it would have some deterministic paradoxes. – Stian Sep 10 '21 at 10:49
  • @StianYttervik The nature of normal, spatial superposition doesn't allow information to travel faster than light, so why would "temporal superposition" allow information to travel in time? – user253751 Sep 10 '21 at 10:54
  • I'm not sure if travelling in time would be a helpful way to look at it. Let's say the wavefunction is peaked around a couple different points in space. We don't say the object it represents is travelling between those two points, merely that upon measurement it is likely to be found at one of the two spots. – mebaker Sep 10 '21 at 15:42
  • I'm also not sure whether it would violate causality, in the same way that entanglement doesn't. Classically, if you know one marble in a bag is red and the other blue, then you grab one and run to the other side of the galaxy and check: you got the blue, so you instantly know the other is red. No big deal. Quantum indeterminancy (it didn't have a color until you looked) is what makes it interesting. – mebaker Sep 10 '21 at 15:44
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I'd like to split your question into 2:

  1. are there temporal superpositions?
  2. can we measure temporal superpositions?

Are there temporal superpositions?

This question has been answered by g-s already with: yes!

$\psi(t)$ can be understood as components of an abstract vector $|\psi\rangle$ in a base of time eigenvectors $|t\rangle$ ("time representation").

$\delta(x-\xi)$ are the well-known amplitudes of position eigenvectors
in the position representation with position eigenvalues $\xi$. Similar you can think of $\delta(t-\tau)$ being amplitudes of time eigenvectors in the time representation with eigenvalues $\tau$. So a function depending on time in general is a superposition of time eigenvectors with the amplitudes $\psi(\tau)$

$\psi(t) \sim \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \mathrm d\tau \, \psi(\tau)\delta(t-\tau) $

Can we measure temporal superpositions?

To experience superpositions in space we must build an experiment that gives us such processes ("collapse of space superposition")

$\int \mathrm d\xi \, \psi(\xi)\delta(x-\xi) \quad \rightarrow \quad \delta(x-\xi_{measured})$

I.e. we observe "a particle" at position $\xi_{measured}$ with probability $|\psi(\xi)|^2$.

Can we build an experiment that gives us similar processes with t instead of x? This is the difficult part of your question. According to the theory of relativity we would expext "yes" as answer.

According to non-relativistic quantum mechanics we can't as already said by Níckolas Alves. There time behaves like time in classical mechanics.

Relativistic quantum field theory considers relativity (i.e. Poincare symmetry). But when calculating transisition probabilities, time gets a special role again. You might expect that probabilities are calculated by integration over space and time. But in QFT you will get $\infty$ when doing so, as The_Sympathizer already pointed out.

Now my personal opinion: we are missing a theory that allows to calculate transition probabilities between block universes. We are mixing physical times with psychic times, this is our confusion. Physical times are indexes enumerating base vectors. Like space positions they do not flow by themselves and they have no direction built-in. Psychic time flows by itself and has a direction. I tried to further work out the idea in About Psychic and Physical Time.

According to this idea the answer to the question "Can we build an experiment that gives us similar processes with t instead of x?" is just "you are this process". Your conscious perception delivers information about "quantum numbers" like space positions, ... that are changing. There is 1 quantum number that always changes in every of your perceptions. This 1 quantum number you call "time". A Lorentz boost changes your perspective, so that your perception, i.e. your psychic time, couples to a slightly different direction in Hilbert space, i.e. physical time.

Harald Rieder
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  • Interesting distinction between two "versions" of time. I will have to have a read through of that when I get a minute. Thanks for posting! – mebaker Sep 20 '21 at 15:05