From special relativity we know that,
$$ m = \frac{m_0}{\sqrt {1-\frac {v^2}{c^2}}} $$
where, $m$, $m_{0}$ and $v$ are the relativistic mass, rest mass of the object and speed relative to the observer respectively.
Here's my question:
Postulate of relativity: Laws of physics are the same in all inertial frames of reference.
Let's imagine 3 frames, one of them being a stationary frame in space, let's call it frame-A, a second frame, frame-B is a spaceship that is currently at rest with respect to frame-A. Let's imagine another frame, frame-'C' which is traveling at a constant velocity of 'v m/s' with respect to A and B. Let both spaceships 'B' & 'C' be of identical construction and have the exact same rest mass. Both B and C fire on their engines begin accelerating. Now, since 'B' was stationary its mass(m) as shown in (i) will be lower than that of 'C'. Because of this although engines exert exactly the same force, 'C' will experience less acceleration than 'B', thus by measuring acceleration with an onboard accelerometer and later comparing his acceleration with B's, C finds out that he was moving originally. Doesn't this count as an experiment that I can use to find whether it is me who is moving or not. It's not about finding out whether C is accelerating but C finds out whether it is him who was moving or not when he was an inertial frame. While performing the experiment as he accelerates, his frame was no longer inertial, yes. But with that experiment he was able to find out whether or not he was in motion when he was an inertial frame.
NOTE: I may have gotten several things wrong in the question. I have not yet learned special relativity formally but have learned it from a few books, little Internet research, and youtube videos. I think maybe the effects of time dilation compensate for this but I don't yet know G.R. and thus can't calculate time dilation in an accelerating frame. The question may be totally stupid but I am curious about what I may have gotten wrong. Thank you for any answers.