In this section of the Wikipedia article on neutrino oscillations, a neutrino mass eigenstate $\left|\nu_i\right>$ is written as
$$\left|\nu_i(t)\right> = e^{-i(E_it-\vec p_i\cdot\vec{x})} \left|\nu_i(0)\right>$$
where $E_i$ is the energy of the mass eigenstate $i$ (rest energy + kinetic energy, as I understand). Then the first approximation is made, using $|\vec p_i| = p_i \gg m_i$ to obtain
$$E_i = \sqrt{p_i^2 + m_i^2} \approx p_i + \frac{m_i^2}{2p_i}.$$
I'm fine with that step since that is just a Taylor expansion. But the next approximation confuses me:
$$p_i + \frac{m_i^2}{2p_i} \approx E + \frac{m_i^2}{2E}$$
where $E$ is "the total energy of the particle". How is this energy $E$ different than the energy $E_i$ from above? Even if $E$ is the "total energy", this sounds like we would expect that $E_i$ is smaller than the "total" energy $E$. But our approximation gives $E_i \approx E + \frac{m_i^2}{2E}$, so $E_i$ should be larger than $E$.