It is quite clear to me that when two operators commute it implies that two different observables associated with the respective operators can be measured simultaneously with the exact accuracy. But what does it imply when two operators anticommute?
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It depends on whether they're both fermionic. Google CCRs & CARs for an interesting example. – J.G. Dec 08 '21 at 13:56
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Possible duplicate: https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/142824/2451 – Qmechanic Dec 08 '21 at 14:08