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As far as I understand from posts such as this and this, when determining what is possible in a relativistic theory, Wigner's theorem tells us that we care about objects transforming under projective representations of the Lorentz group, because two state vectors differing by a phase are really equivalent.

However, I don't see how this is primarily relevant for QFT. Isn't it more important that the Lagrangian density is invariant under Lorentz transformations, rather than anything to do with the properties of the states?

Qmechanic
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    These things are connected and the complete reasoning is explained in detail in Weinberg's The Quantum Theory of Fields, Chapters 2 to 5. Fields are introduced because they are convenient to facilitate our construction of relativistic interactions satisfying cluster decomposition. In fact, in Chapter 5 Weinberg shows that they are constructed in such a way that that the way they transform under Lorentz encodes how the underlying particle states transform under Poincaré. So the two things you ask about are connected, and the connection is given in Weinberg's Chapter 5. – Gold Dec 10 '21 at 14:21
  • Related/possible duplicate: https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/174898/50583 – ACuriousMind Dec 10 '21 at 16:09

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