Both $\gamma^{0}$ and $\gamma^{5}$ are Hermitian, so could we replace $\gamma^{0}$ with $\gamma^{5}$ to construct a Lorentz scalar with the same properties as $\bar{\psi}\psi$?
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6What's stopping you from calculating how it transforms? – JamalS Jan 10 '22 at 23:02
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1@JamalS This is as good as a pithy short answer. The OP might have no idea... – Cosmas Zachos Jan 10 '22 at 23:26
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1@JamalS I have tried to calculate it myself, though I am not sure of my conclusion. My guess is that it does not form a Lorentz scalar because the transformation uses the fact that $\gamma^{0} \gamma^{0} = 1$, but this is not the case for $\gamma^{5}$? EDIT: $\gamma^{5}$ does have this property - so it should be able to take the role of $\gamma^{0}$ and construct a Lorentz scalar right? – sputnik44 Jan 11 '22 at 01:44
2 Answers
A Lorentz boost about the $i$th spatial direction is represented as $\psi\rightarrow V\psi$ with $V=\exp\left(\theta[\gamma^0,\gamma^i]\right)$ for some real $\theta$. The problem is that $V^\dagger\neq V^{-1}$. This follows since $\gamma^0$ is Hermitian and $\gamma^i$ is anti-Hermitian, which implies that $$[\gamma^0,\gamma^i]^\dagger=[\gamma^{i\dagger},\gamma^{0\dagger}]=+[\gamma^0,\gamma^i]$$ whereas we would want a minus sign for $V$ to be unitary.
Using $\gamma^0$ in $\psi^\dagger\gamma^0\psi$ gives us that extra minus sign we need which comes from commuting $\gamma^0$ past the factor of $\gamma^i$ in the exponent. Using $\gamma^5$ instead would not work since it gives us two minus signs from commuting past both $\gamma^0$ and $\gamma^i$ in the exponent.

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Of course you can, just a bit different from yours. The following is a Lorentz scalar and Hermitian: $$ \bar{\psi}i\gamma^{5}\psi = \psi^{\dagger}i\gamma^{0}\gamma^{5}\psi = -\psi^{\dagger}\gamma^{1}\gamma^{2}\gamma^{3}\psi. $$
It's called "pseudoscalar" mass term. See more details here.

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So just to be clear, no you can not replace $\gamma^0$ by $\gamma^5$ to get a scalar. (I upvoted anyway) – octonion Apr 07 '22 at 14:17