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I have read in an article on Special relativity that laws of physics are the same in all inertial frames of reference but then while reading a book on GR, I came across the notion that laws of Physics are the same in all frames of reference. Can someone please explain this? Are the laws of physics same in all frames, I mean in both inertial and non-inertial frames ?

Rian
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  • possibly useful: My response (referencing the "Frames of Reference" video by Ivey and Hume) https://physics.stackexchange.com/a/510664/148184 to https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/510521/how-can-one-tell-they-are-accelerating ... See also starting @ 16m15s (rotating frame @17m05s, centrifugal @20m25s-22m00s) – robphy Feb 07 '22 at 17:59
  • Related: https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/650350/109928 – Stéphane Rollandin Feb 08 '22 at 08:41
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    See also https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/458854/109928 – Stéphane Rollandin Feb 08 '22 at 08:57

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The laws of physics are deterministic.

Thus there are laws of physics whatever frame you're in because whatever frame you're in, its obvious that given a description of the physical world now, given determinism, the physical world is determined a moment later.

However, Einstein singled out inertial frames - why?

Now, we can partition all these frames into sets where physical laws look the same. So, we cannot going by physical laws, distinguish a frame in one set from another in the same set. These sets represent natural symmetries of physics.

Now, Einstein singled out inertial frames - why?

Because these are the frames in which the laws of classical mechanics look like Newtons laws. This is a representation of the Galilean symmetry.

Mozibur Ullah
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