In the position basis, we define the basis kets $\vert x\rangle$ like this: $$\hat{x}\vert x \rangle = x \vert x \rangle \quad \forall x\in\mathbb{R}.$$ We also have that for any state $\vert \psi \rangle$, $\langle x \vert \psi \rangle = \psi(x)$, the wave function in the x-basis. My lecturer then claims that it is 'obvious' that $\hat{x} \vert \psi \rangle = x\psi(x).$
Note we are working in only one dimension at the moment for simplicity.
I tried using the completeness condition: $$\hat{x} \vert \psi \rangle = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}dx \;\hat{x} \vert x \rangle \langle x \vert \psi \rangle.$$ Then, using the definition of the $\vert x \rangle$ kets and the fact that $\langle x \vert \psi \rangle = \psi(x)$: $$\hat{x} \vert \psi \rangle = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} dx \; x \vert x \rangle \psi(x)$$ I don't see where to go from here.