Essentially all standard relativistic quantum field theory textbooks give the same argument for why the theory obeys causality. First, one computes the quantity $\langle 0 | \phi(\mathbf{x}) \phi(\mathbf{y}) |0 \rangle$ and finds that it is nonzero for $\mathbf{x} \neq \mathbf{y}$, naively suggesting that particles can propagate instantaneously. Then, one computes the commutator $[\phi(\mathbf{x}), \phi(\mathbf{y})]$ and finds that it is zero for $\mathbf{x} \neq \mathbf{y}$. This implies that simultaneous measurements of the field at distinct points can't affect each other, which is supposed to restore causality. (For simplicity, I'm considering simultaneous points only, though of course the arguments would be unchanged for spacelike separated points.)
There are several ways to explain why the vanishing commutator restores causality. One very common way, using particle language, is to say that the commutator represents "the amplitude of a particle to go from $\mathbf{y}$ to $\mathbf{x}$, minus the amplitude of an (anti)particle to go from $\mathbf{x}$ to $\mathbf{y}$". You need to include both terms, because ultimately you can't tell which way the particles are going for spacelike separation, and they precisely cancel. Another variant, using field language (given here and in some older textbooks), is that the vanishing of this commutator implies that turning on a source at $\mathbf{x}$ doesn't affect the expectation value of $\phi(\mathbf{y})$. And finally, there's the Weinberg way, which is that these details don't matter because in the end we're only after $S$-matrix elements.
However, I've never been satisfied by these arguments, because they don't seem to reflect how measurements occur in real life. In a typical detector in particle physics, there is no component that does anything remotely like "measuring $\phi(\mathbf{x})$". Instead, detectors absorb particles, and this is a different enough process that the arguments above don't seem to apply.
A thought experiment
Let's make a simple model of the production and detection of a particle. A quantum field couples to sources locally,
$$H_{\text{int}}(t) = \int d \mathbf{x}' \, \phi(\mathbf{x}') J(\mathbf{x}', t).$$
Suppose we begin in the vacuum state $|0 \rangle$. At time $t = 0$, let's turn on an extremely weak, delta function localized source $J(\mathbf{x}') = \epsilon_s \delta(\mathbf{x} - \mathbf{x}')$. Right afterward, at time $t = 0^+$, the state is
$$\exp\left(-i \int_{-\infty}^{0+} dt\, H_{\text{int}}(t)\right) |0 \rangle = |0 \rangle - i \epsilon_s \phi(\mathbf{x}) |0 \rangle + \ldots.$$
Now let's put a purely absorbing, weakly coupled detector localized at $\mathbf{y}$, which concretely could be an atom in the ground state. This detector is described by Hamiltonian
$$H_{\text{det}} = \epsilon_d |e \rangle \langle g| \phi_-(\mathbf{y}) + \epsilon_d |g \rangle \langle e | \phi_+(\mathbf{y})$$
where $\phi_-$ is the part of $\phi$ containing only annihilation operators, and $\phi_+$ contains creation operators. Physically, the two terms represent absorption of a particle to excite the atom, and emission of a particle to de-excite it. Because the atom starts out in the ground state, only the first term of the Hamiltonian matters. The amplitude for the detector to be in the excited state, a tiny time after the source acts, is
$$\mathcal{M} \propto \epsilon_s \epsilon_d \langle 0 | \phi_-(\mathbf{y}) \phi(\mathbf{x}) |0 \rangle \propto \langle 0 | \phi(\mathbf{y}) \phi(\mathbf{x}) |0 \rangle$$
which is nonzero! This appears to be a flagrant violation of causality, since the source can signal to the detector nearly instantaneously.
Objections
Note how this example evades all three of the arguments in the second paragraph:
- The amplitude for a particle to go from the detector to the source doesn't contribute, because the detector starts in the ground state; it can't emit anything. There's no reason for the commutator to show up.
- The detector isn't measuring $\phi(\mathbf{y})$, so the fact that its expectation value vanishes is irrelevant. (As an even simpler example, in the harmonic oscillator $\langle 1 | x | 1 \rangle$ also vanishes, but that doesn't mean an absorbing detector can't tell the difference between $|0 \rangle$ and $|1 \rangle$.)
- The Weinberg argument doesn't apply because we're not considering $S$-matrix elements. Like most experimental apparatuses in the real world, the source and detector are at actual locations in space, not at abstract infinity.
I'm not sure why my argument fails. Some easy objections don't work:
- Maybe I'm neglecting higher-order terms. But that probably won't fix the problem, because the $\epsilon$'s can be taken arbitrarily small.
- Maybe it's impossible to create a perfectly localized source or detector. Probably, but there's no problem localizing particles in QFT on the scale of $1/m$, and you can make the source and detector out of very heavy particles.
- Maybe the detector can't be made good enough to see the problem, by the energy-time uncertainty principle. But I can't see why. It doesn't matter if it's inefficient; if the detector has any chance to click at all, at $t < |\mathbf{x} - \mathbf{y}|$, then causality is violated.
- Maybe the detector really can emit particles even when it's in the ground state. But this contradicts everything I know about atomic physics.
- Maybe the free-field mode expansion doesn't work because the presence of the detector changes the mode structure. But I'm not sure how to make this more concrete, plus it shouldn't matter if we take $\epsilon_d$ very small.
What's going on? Why doesn't this thought experiment violate causality?