I am currently learning quantum field theory and trying to wrap my head around a couple of concepts that are still eluding my understanding:
What is the reason for transitioning from wavefunctions to quantum field operators that act on the vacuum state to give quantum states? I understand that this has something to do with invariance under Poincaré transformation, and I understand that if you want to take a field equation (say the KG equation for example) and quantize it, then you can use the prescribed methods, but why would we do this for particles which can already be described by the Dirac equation? Why should we say that any given particle is a manifestation of some underlying quantum field?
Any help with this would help me greatly.