When we say that quantum mechanics reproduces classical mechanics at macroscopic scales, is it a statement about the center of mass of a macroscopic system?
More specifically, let $\psi (x)$ be the wavefunction of the CoM co-ordinate of a macroscopic system. Let the CoM position and momentum operator be $X$ and $P$. Then, is the claim that:
$$\frac{d}{dt} \langle \psi|P|\psi \rangle =\left(-\frac{dV}{dx}\right)_{x= (\langle \psi |X|\psi \rangle)}$$
$$\frac{d}{dt} \langle \psi |X|\psi \rangle =\frac{1}{m}\langle \psi |P|\psi \rangle$$
Is this what we claim when we say quantum mechanics reproduces classical mechanics? If no, what is the claim?
If yes, how can one derive this fact about the CoM wavefunction? These equations are almost the same as Ehrenfest's theorem.
I think maybe these equations rely on the claim that the fluctuations of the CoM wavefunction about the mean are small. Then how can one show that the fluctuations of the CoM wavefunction about the mean are always small for macroscopic systems? How exactly do the fluctuations become small just because there are too many particles?