I'm having difficulty understanding some of this derivation. The relevant information, as I understand it is:
We've let the lorentzian metric be a perturbation of the minkowski metric: $$g_{\mu\nu} = \eta_{\mu\nu}+h_{\mu\nu},$$ where apparently if $h_{\mu\nu}$ is small enough, we can approximate the inverse as: $$g^{\mu\nu} = \eta^{\mu\nu}-h^{\mu\nu}.$$
By some assumptions, the stated results are:
$$ \Delta \bar{h}_{00} = -2\kappa T_{00}$$ $$ \Delta \bar{h}_{0i} = 0 $$ $$ \Delta \bar{h}_{ij} = 0 $$
where $\bar{h}_{\mu \nu} = h_{\mu \nu} - \frac{1}{2}h_\beta^\beta\eta_{\mu\nu}$.
Which we can substitute into the Newtonian gravitation equation to yield:
$$ \bar{h}_{00} = \frac{-\kappa c^2}{2\pi G} \Phi $$ $$ \bar{h}_{0i} = 0 $$ $$ \bar{h}_{ij} = 0 $$
We then 'invert' the perturbation to: $ h_{\mu \nu} = \bar{h}_{\mu \nu} - \frac{1}{2}\bar{h}_\beta^\beta\eta_{\mu\nu}$.
and obtain from this:
$$h_{00} = \frac{1}{2} \bar{h}_{00} = \frac{-\kappa c^2}{2\pi G} \Phi $$ $$h_{0i} = 0$$ $$h_{ij} = \frac{1}{2} \delta_{ij} \bar{h}_{00} = -\delta_{ij}\frac{\kappa c^2}{2\pi G} \Phi$$
I can follow most of it alright, I'm just struggling to figure out the working behind the last step if anyone could explain this.