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I am having a very difficult time understanding this basic concept of why the direction of the electric field by a single isolated charge is radially outward or inward but not at an angle. I have been reading other sources on how this is due to spherical symmetry of charges, of how when you rotate the sphere, because charge is uniform at a certain radius, so it does not matter what angle the field points, only direction you have unique left is either radially outward or inward.

But I still don't understand this.Can anyone explain, possibly with a diagram, picture, of how at a certain point of space, electric fields can't be pointing at a angle due to symmetry of charge? Like are the electrical field pointing at angle canceling each other out? Can someone give some analogy of how symmetry makes electric field have unique direction only radially inward or outward?

TLo
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  • Physics is not mathematics. The "why" in physics doesn't work in the direction you seek. The theory is crafted to match the results of experiments. You hypothesize that the electric field of a charge could be at an angle. How would you test this with an experiment? – John Doty May 01 '22 at 18:27

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At an angle to what? If you are imagining a point charge, it’s a coordinate singularity. If you stand at the North Pole, every direction is “south.” If you have an object which really has zero size, as you approach that point the only direction available is “away.”

Let’s ignore the zero-size effect by imagining you have some sphere of charge. Here are two basic ways you can have a non-radial field:

  1. The field at the sphere’s equator might have some component tangent to the equator, like how the velocity vector for a city on Earth’s equator always points to the east. This field would have nonzero line integral $\oint \vec E\times\mathrm d\vec\ell$ around the equator, which you can actually accomplish by having a changing magnetic field $\mathrm d\vec B/\mathrm dt$ within the sphere. This relationship actually survives into the limit of a zero-sized sphere: everywhere in space that $\mathrm d\vec B/\mathrm dt \neq 0$, the electric field has nonzero curl, $\vec\nabla\times\vec E \neq 0$.

  2. The field at the sphere’s equator might have a component tangent to the sphere’s surface, but pointing into the northern or southern hemisphere. In that case you could subtract off the radial part of the field and leave yourself with just the dipole field. The dipole field also survives into the zero-size particle limit, but you have to imagine making the charge on your sphere larger as the diameter of the sphere gets smaller, so that the dipole moment is a constant.

In point of fact, modern quantum electrodynamics does predict some small electric dipole moment associated with pointlike charges. The answer to “at an angle to what?” is the direction of the particle’s spin. The smallness of the permanent electric dipole moment, it turns out, is related to the lack of differences between matter and antimatter. I’ve written answers about this which specifically discuss the electron and the neutron.

rob
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Op has been getting several answers which may be correct but appear to be above the level of what OP was looking for. So I am taking a simpler approach.

Consider the following diagram where we observe a single charge on the left side and we are measuring the electric field at the point on the right. If the field was at an angle, there are components along the axis and perpendicular to it. Consider therefore such a perpendicular component as shown: Diagram 1

Now suppose you move behind and look at the setup from there. You would see the following: Diagram 2

And now, while you are behind, stand on your head. You will see the following: Diagram 3

But notice this is the same situation as in the first diagram - the charge is on the left but now the assumption there that there was a component perpendicular to the axis and pointing up leads to the contradiction that it would point down in the same situation. Thus, there can be no such component, only a component along the axis.

Note that if there were a complicated distribution of charge on the left instead of a single charge then we couldn't use such a symmetry argument as the third diagram would be different from the first one.

Not_Einstein
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The experimental study of electricity led to modeling the data with formulas that not only modeled the data, but were also predictive of new measurements. The attraction between two point charges . Coulombs law is the distillate of these observations, and it is called a "law" because of that, extra axiom to pick mathematical solutions from the general mathematical formulas.

Your question , wanting the electric field to point at an angle between two point charges is not allowed by Coulombs law. .

coulomb

As the electric field between two charges is defined as the vector force divided by one of the charges , it has the same direction as the force, i.e. the line joining the two charges as stated above. (to measure an electric field there is always a test charge)

So within classical electrostatics there are no angular deviations of the field lines by definition of electric field.

anna v
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The symmetries of the charge distribution say something about the symmetries of the resulting electric field. For example

  1. $\rho$ has rotational symmetry $\implies$ $\vec E$ only depends on $r$
  2. $\rho$ has mirror symmetry through some plane $\implies$ $\vec E(\vec r)$ is parallel to the plane for all points $\vec r$ on the plane
  3. $\rho$ has translation symmetry in some direction (for example $z$) $\implies$ $\vec E$ is independent of $z$.

The basic idea behind these statements is that since $\vec E$ can be uniquely determined from $\rho$ it shouldn't matter if we first apply the symmetry $\rho\rightarrow \rho'$ and than determine $\vec E'=f(\rho')$ or if we first determine $\vec E=f(\rho)$ and than apply the symmetry $\vec E\rightarrow \vec E'$. Since $\rho'=\rho$ (we said the charge distribution was symmetric under the transformation) we can reason that $\vec E'=\vec E$.

Let's see how to derive (2.) using this last fact. To make this easier we can decompose $\vec E$ in a tangential and a normal part: $\vec E=\vec E_\parallel+\vec E_\perp$.

enter image description here

From the image we can conclude that $\vec E'_\perp=-\vec E_\perp$ and $\vec E_\parallel'=\vec E_\parallel$. Since $\vec E'=\vec E$ we can conclude that $\vec E_\perp=-\vec E_\perp$ which has the only solution $\vec E_\perp=0$, or in other words: $\vec E$ is parallel to the plane.

Now why did I put all this effort in proving point (2.) when we are interested in spherical symmetry? Well for a spherically symmetric charge distribution we can draw a line connecting the origin to some other point $\vec r$. Now any plane that passes through this line is a plane of mirror symmetry. By choosing 2 nice planes we can deduce that $\vec E$ must be parallel to the line connecting the origin to $\vec r$, i.e. the electric field is in the radial direction.

As a bonus you can prove (1.) and (3.) using the fact that having $f(x+a)=f(x)$ for all $a$ implies $f(x) = \text{independent of }x$. To prove (1.) it might be useful to write $\vec E$ in spherical coordinates $\vec E(r,\theta,\phi)$.

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Suppose you gave me a blank ball and closed your eyes, if I rotated and gave it back, you would not be able to say the difference. Now imagine the situation with the electric charge, imagine charge is kept at origin. If I were to rotate space about origin (you could imagine the charge was kept on a paper sheet and I decide to rotate the whole paper sheet), the situation in end would be indistinguishable from situation in the start.

This means that $\frac{\partial E_{\theta} }{\partial \theta}= 0$ i.e: the rate of change of component of the electric field in the angular direction is zero. This could mean either that at all points the $E_{theta}$ component is same or it is zero everywhere. Can you show that it must be infact zero everywhere?

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The most basic answer lies purely in the mathematics of maxwells equations.

$\nabla \cdot \vec{E} = \frac{\rho}{\epsilon_0}$

For a point charge $\rho = Q \delta^3(r)$

This is a single point of divergence.

A single point of divergence has spherical symettry, and thus the field must be symmetrical. Understanding the definition of divergence can show why this is the case

jensen paull
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    Mathematics is not physics. Maxwell's equations were crafted to capture the phenomena. Thus, using them as an explanation is circular reasoning. – John Doty May 01 '22 at 18:42
  • All reasoning is circular. We devise mathematical laws based on experimental evidence. Experimentally charge causes a divergence in the electric field. Which is spherically symmetrical, hence a symmetric electric field. Mathematics is the basis of which all laws are understood and explained. Disregarding the mathematics in explaining something is ridiculous. – jensen paull May 01 '22 at 20:26
  • Mathematicians make up abstractions and deduce their necessary properties. However, there's no reason to expect that an arbitrary mathematical abstraction will correspond to a physical phenomenon. We choose mathematical abstractions according to how successfully they model the phenomena. This is not circular: it starts with the phenomena. – John Doty May 01 '22 at 20:54
  • Gauss law is equivelant to coulombs law when there aren't any changing magnetic fields. I wasnt stating an "arbitrary mathematical abstraction", I was stating a mathematical law that is experimentally correct. Analysing Gauss law is the same as analysing the coulomb force. All deductions about symetry of the E field are made based on experimental observations. Which is included in Gauss law. – jensen paull May 01 '22 at 21:06
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    Gauss' law alone doesn't say anything about symmetry and doesn't preclude tangential fields. Ultimately you also need Faraday's law to derive Coulomb's law, at least without invoking the symmetry argument, which is what OP is having trouble with in the first place. – Puk May 01 '22 at 21:33
  • "In the absence of changing magnetic fields" – jensen paull May 01 '22 at 21:34
  • A mathematical law chosen because it conforms to experiment. If you let the experiments rule, there is no circular reasoning. But you never mentioned experiments, and said "The most basic answer lies purely in the mathematics of maxwells equations." This is wrong. The most basic answer lies in the experiments of Coulomb and many others. – John Doty May 01 '22 at 21:38
  • @puk Coulomb's law is an experimental interpretation, not derived from any math. The math was chosen to match Coulomb's law. – John Doty May 01 '22 at 21:41
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I may try to provide for a simple explanation if possible. Electric field at a point can also be understood as the force vector per unit charge at that point.

That means if I have a test charge q at some point, the direction of force acting on q will be the same as that of electric field at that point.

Now coming to your question, you are referring to electric field lines, which are just a representation of how electric fields occur in a given scenario. If you take a point charge Q and a test charge q, and bring q desirably closer to Q, the electric field at any point will always be in the direction of the force acting between them, which in turn is along the line joining the two charges.

If you take this charge q towards Q from any "angle" around it, the electric field will still be in the direction of the force, like before.

For a fixed distance r between the charges, if you take q around Q along the circle of radius r, the electric field direction will be along the radius(since the radius is on the line joining the two charges).

Since the electric fields at every point equidistant from a charge are equal in magnitude, and the intensity of electric field is characterized by the density of electric field lines around that point, we can say that equidistant points have equal density of electric field lines.

So coming back to our circle of radius r, since every point on the path of the circle is equidistant from the charge Q, the density of electric field lines across equal sections of the circumference of the circle are equal. Hence we can see that the electric field lines are evenly distributed throughout the circumference. Therefore the electric field is in a radial direction.

My explanation, if wrong, may need correction. Hope this helps.

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Imagine a tap. Water is coming out of tap and falling to flat ground. This water is flowing towards far away point in all directions. How will water flow look like? I hope you can visualize that the water flow will be radially outward.

Think of positive charge as a "tap" of electric field. This electric field is flowing away from positive charge in all directions in 3D. If positive charge is "tap" (or source) then clearly negative charge will be "sink".

  • Sorry but this is not the way to go when trying to work out the dependencies of the electric and magnetic field,it may work for the idea of a point charge (not really) but that is about it, symmetry of the charge distribution should always be the go to option for these problems IMO – Dirac Delta Yeah Apr 30 '22 at 03:36
  • @DiracDeltaYeah : Why not? My explanation uses rotational symmetry while avoiding the term. Can you show any case where symmetry is present and my visualization fails? – Sabat Anwar May 01 '22 at 04:29
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    I think one issue is thiat this explanation always assumes that something is being ppoured from a higher dimension. So, for 2 dimension, you have a tap pouring water from above. If were to do in three, it'd be that there is a fourth dimension where the water is being poured from – tryst with freedom May 01 '22 at 09:39
  • @Buraian: I think you are correct. That would be a case of extending the analogy too far. – Sabat Anwar May 01 '22 at 15:10