The notion that newtonian gravity is incompatible with special relativity is often suggested by declaring the familiar equation $$F_g=\frac{Gm_1m_2}{|\vec{r}_1(t)-\vec{r}_2(t)|^2}$$ and stating that this requires the notion of both particles instantaneously being at certain positions, which doesn't hold up when you allow moving observers to measure time differently.
It is often said that electromagnetism (in the form described by Maxwell's equations) is compatible with special relativity since the equations are symmetric under a Lorentz boost; there exists a reformulation of Maxwell's equations in terms of the field tensor $F_{\mu\nu}$ and the 4-current $(\rho,\vec{J})$. However, we can use Maxwell's equations and the Lorentz force law to find an expression very familiar to the one mentioned above: $$F_e=\frac{k_eq_1q_2}{|\vec{r}_1(t)-\vec{r}_2(t)|^2}.$$ Why doesn't the same special relativity-based objection apply to this equation?
A common answer seems to be that the form of Coulomb's law written above is only valid for static cases. I don't believe that's correct: Coulomb's law accurately describes the electric attraction/repulsion even in a non-relativistic approximation if the charges are moving (or at the minimum, it is mathematically well-defined because a universal time is defined); to find the actual net force, one would simply need to add a magnetic correction, in accordance with the complete Lorentz force equation. I understand that once you do that, you're involving relativity under the hood, even though it looks newtonian, but if that's the case, why can't the Newtonian gravitational force expression be similarly modified using a similar velocity-dependent "correction"?