I think the best way to ask my question is by considering the maxwell-Lagrangian,
$$\mathcal{L}=-\frac{1}{4}F^{\mu \nu}F_{\mu \nu}=-\frac{1}{2}(\partial^{\mu}A^{\nu}\partial_{\mu}A_{\nu}-\partial^{\mu}A^{\nu}\partial_{\nu}A_{\mu}).$$
For scalar fields, $\phi_{i}$, we have Euler-Lagrange equations
$$\frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial \phi_{i}} - \partial_{\mu}\left( \frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial(\partial_{\mu}\phi_{i})}\right)=0.$$
I'm not sure i fully understand what we have for a four vector field. I initially learnt that it would be this
$$\frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial A^{\mu}} - \partial_{\nu}\left( \frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial(\partial_{\nu}A^{\mu})}\right)=0.$$
(obviously you would need to change the indices in $\mathcal{L}$ to something other than $\mu$ and $\nu$ before calculating.)
My question is, does it matter whether we treat $A^{\mu}$ as a vector or can we apply the Euler Lagrange equations to $A_{\mu}$. I.e, is this expression
$$\frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial A_{\mu}} - \partial^{\nu}\left( \frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial(\partial^{\nu}A_{\mu})}\right)=0~?$$
Equally, does it matter whether or the differential $\partial$ and the vector field $A$ are of opposite form, (i.e, if one is one form should the other necessarily be 4-vector). Or can we equally solve
$$\frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial A_{\mu}} - \partial_{\nu}\left( \frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial(\partial_{\nu}A_{\mu})}\right)=0$$
or
$$\frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial A^{\mu}} - \partial^{\nu}\left( \frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial(\partial^{\nu}A^{\mu})}\right)=0$$
and obtain the same solution?