How do we know that the electric field that is produced due to Faraday's law of induction does have zero divergence since when proving Maxwell's equation of gauss law, where the divergence of electric field is described, in the derivations of the equation that I have seen (using Coulomb's law) I have noticed that only the electric field that is produced due to static charges is taken into consideration. The electric field due to Faraday's law is considered as having obviously zero divergence. How can it be proven mathematicaly that such a field has zero divergence?
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I don't understand. Faraday's law does not cause electric field. It is just a relation between field with other quantites – tryst with freedom May 25 '22 at 08:12
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I mean the maxwell faraday equation – Kani Pen May 25 '22 at 08:14
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Could you link one such derivation you saw of this? I can try to help you. – tryst with freedom May 25 '22 at 08:14
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I saw it in wikipedia. Link: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gauss%27s_law The derivation is stated in the paragraph: Relation to Coulomb's law – Kani Pen May 25 '22 at 08:17
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There are three derivation under that section, which one are you interested in? – tryst with freedom May 25 '22 at 08:20
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Aren't all of them the same? – Kani Pen May 25 '22 at 08:21
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They are conceptually dealing with three different scenarios – tryst with freedom May 25 '22 at 08:22
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let's say the second derivation – Kani Pen May 25 '22 at 08:23
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First is Gauss to coloumb in static case, second is gauss to columb in moving charge case and finally it is columb to gauss – tryst with freedom May 25 '22 at 08:23
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Let us continue this discussion in chat. – Kani Pen May 25 '22 at 08:26