I consider a plane wave $Ae^{ikx-i\omega t}$ where $A \in \mathbb{C}$, $k = \frac{2\pi }{\lambda} \in \mathbb{R}$, $\omega = 2 \pi \nu = \frac{2\pi c}{\lambda} \in \mathbb{R}$ ($\lambda$ is the wave length) and $t = t_0 \in \mathbb{R}$ such as: $$\psi(x)|_{t=t_0} = Ae^{ikx}e^{-i\omega t_0} \equiv \tilde{A}e^{ikx}$$ A plane wave is physically acceptable ($\equiv$ represents a physical evenment) when: $$\psi(x) \in L^2(\mathbb{R}, \mathbb{R}) \Longrightarrow ||\psi(x)||^2 = \int_\mathbb{R}|\psi(x)|^2 \ dx \equiv I \in \mathbb{R}_0 \ \mathrm{and \ such \ as} \ I = 1$$ (or at least $\exists \phi \in L^2(\mathbb{R}, \mathbb{R})$ with $||\phi(x)||^2 = 1$ such as $\phi(x) \equiv \frac{\psi(x)}{||\psi(x)||}$)
Now, let's consider a neutron $n$ travelling in a vacuum space. I believe its wave function is define by $\psi(x) = \tilde{A}e^{ikx}$ such as $\lambda = \lambda_0 := 100 \ \mathrm{pm}$ for instance. My problem is: this wave function does not belong to $L^2$.
Indeed: $$\int_\mathbb{R}|\psi(x)|^2 \ dx = \int_\mathbb{R} \psi^\star(x)\psi(x) \ dx = \tilde{A}\int_\mathbb{R} \exp{(ikx - ikx)} \ dx = \tilde{A} \int_\mathbb{R} 1 \ dx \notin \mathbb{R}_0$$ So my question is: Why this neutron, which obviously exists, has the wave function of a non-physical evenment ? Is it perhaps because the neutron is isolated (thus not trapped in any kind of potential) and can therefore be anywhere between $x = -\infty$ and $x = +\infty$ ?