As per my understanding so far, homogeneity of space doesn't require a special vantage point (all points in space are "equivalent" to each other) and is a universal statement in that sense; whereas for the isotropy of space, we talk with respect to a single point (the points on any circle, centered at this point, are all "equivalent" to each other)
Clearly then this implies that the isotropy trivially follows from homogeneity of space. But then whenever we are talking of symmetries we always talk of them separately as if they are independent of each other. For example, I have always seen these assumptions stated separately when we define inertial frames. Moreover (continuing this example), in the derivations of lorentz transformation equation, homogeneity assumption is used to argue for linearity of transformation equations and isotropy is used to further eliminate certain coefficients (made possible by that symmetry).
Indeed, the way I saw these concepts being used always made me feel that these concepts are quite different in flavor and independent in this sense but again, when I return back to think of these in isolation, what I said earlier is what comes to my mind, clearly in conflict with how these things are being used.
I reckon, there is clearly something wrong with my intuitive understanding of these basic concepts. Seeking clarification
P.S. Also, I saw a claim somewhere that isotropy about 2 points implies that space is homogeneous and again, I can't see the reason. What I understand is that the points on the circle around a point (isotropy assumed) does not form an equivalence class in that if for one of the points on the circle it is known that space is isotropic, we can't really conclude the same about the others (on that circle) that same must hold true just because those points were "equivalent". Am I missing something?