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The ONLY thing that we know about $p$ and $q$ is their commutation relation $[q,p]=2i$.

In other words, can we find some Hilbert basis such that one of them has the form

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I am asking this because it seems to be implied in my introductory QM textbook, although I might be interpreting it wrong and additional assumptions needs to be made about $p$ and $q$.

Qmechanic
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    There is one additional thing you need to assume, which is that there is a unique state $|\Omega \rangle$ satisfying $a |\Omega \rangle = 0$. Otherwise, the chain of states you get from applying $a$ and $a^\dagger$ might not stop at zero, or there might be more than one chain. – knzhou Jul 01 '22 at 22:23
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    variation on https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/716079/ – ZeroTheHero Jul 01 '22 at 23:29
  • Related: https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/23028/2451 – Qmechanic Jul 02 '22 at 05:07

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Well, using your commutation relation

\begin{equation} \begin{split} [\hat{a}, \hat{a}^{\dagger}] &= \frac{1}{4}[q+ip, q-ip] \\ &= -\frac{i}{2}[q, p] \\ &=1 \end{split} \end{equation}

which does indeed produce the canonical commutation relation of ladder operators. However, we can only describe the operators $\hat{a}/\hat{a}^{\dagger}$ as ladder operators if they also satisfy

\begin{equation} \begin{split} [\hat{H}, \hat{a}] = -c\hat{a} \\ [H, \hat{a}^{\dagger}] = c\hat{a}^{\dagger} \end{split} \end{equation}

for some constant $c$ and where the Hamiltonian is $H$. The reasoning for this is that if $|\psi_{n}\rangle$ and $E_{n}$ and an eigenstate and eigenvalue respectively, i.e.

\begin{equation} H|\psi_{n}\rangle = E_{n}|\psi_{n}\rangle \end{equation}

then this implies

\begin{equation} \begin{split} \hat{H}\hat{a}|\psi_{n}\rangle = (E_{n} - c)\hat{a}|\psi_{n}\rangle \\ \hat{H}\hat{a}^{\dagger}|\psi_{n}\rangle = (E_{n} + c)\hat{a}^{\dagger}|\psi_{n}\rangle. \end{split} \end{equation}

While it might be possible to find operators $\hat{a}/\hat{a}^{\dagger}$ satisfying the commutation relations, they may not be particularly useful as raising or lowering operators given the particular form of the Hamiltonian.

Niall
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    This is not needed. OP just asked if the matrix representation was valid in some orthonormal basis, they didn’t specify that it had to be a basis of eigenstates of H. – Jahan Claes Jul 01 '22 at 22:43
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    I've reread OP's question and you're correct. I'll leave the answer as it is in case they are interested in constructing ladder operators with the Hamiltonian known a priori – Niall Jul 01 '22 at 22:46
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Any operator $\hat \Omega$ of the form that you suggest, with entries just above or below the diagonal, can be considered as a raising or lowering operator. Such an operator would have the property that $$ \hat\Omega\vert p\rangle=c_p\vert p\pm 1\rangle $$ and so “ladders down” or “ladders up” depending on how you order basis states.

An example beyond $\hat a$ and $\hat a^\dagger$ would be $\hat L_\pm$, where the ladder operators commute to a diagonal operator; both $\hat L_\pm$ have the same form as suggested by the OP, although the matrix elements are not simple $\sqrt{n}$ form.

In general such ladder operators are quite generic to semi-simple Lie algebras, where root vectors are considered ladder operators, and basis vectors are eigenstates of Cartan elements. Once one defines an ordered set of basis states (often eigenstates of some commuting set of operators), it is of course possible to extend the notion of ladder operators without reference to semi-simple Lie algebras

ZeroTheHero
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The answer is in general negative, but it is technical.

If there existed such a Hilbert basis, by construction, the basis would be included in the domains of the Hermitian operators $X$ and $P$.

As a consequence, they would be symmetric as and they would admit selfadjoit extensions given by the standard selfadjoint operators $X$ and $P$ in $L^2(R)$ up to a unitary transformation. This transformation is the one that sends the basis into the standard basis of Hermite functions in $L^2(R)$.

The obstruction is now that it is possible to define operators $X$ and $P$ which satisfies the usual CCR on a common subspace of their domains (and this is equivalent to your CCR for the associated $a$ and $a^\dagger$), but such that there are *no" selfadjoint extensions for $P$.

Tipically, $X$ and $P$ defined on $L^2([0,+\infty))$ as the usual differential operators with common domain given by the space of smooth functions which smoothly vanish at $x=0$.

It is however possible to add some hypotheses to yours to prove your assertion.

In particular, the operator $a^\dagger a$ must be essentially selfadjoint on its domain and there must not exist dense invariant subspaces under the action of $a$ and $a^\dagger$. That is an alternative formulation of the Stone von Neumann theorem.

A more rough set of assumptions which guarantee the validity of your assertion is the following one.

  1. There exists a vector $\psi$ in the domain of $a$ such that $a\psi=0$.

  2. The domain of the two operators includes an invariant subspace which, in turn, contains $\psi$.

  3. The space of finite linear combinations of the vectors $(a^\dagger)^n \psi$ is dense in the Hilbert space.

  • Thank you for your answer, it seems that I missed to notice we also suppose that P and Q are observables which the author defines as "Hermitian operators having a complete set of eigenvectors", does this imply the required assumptions ? – eternalstudent Jul 03 '22 at 11:31
  • That is very confused. The issue we are discussing is mathematics not physics and it should be handled with rigour, otherwise the risk is to propagate misunderstandings where it is impossible to distinguish between physical arguments and mathematical proofs. Hermitian, symmetric and selfadjoint are different notions, a confused use of them makes even more obscure the issue. – Valter Moretti Jul 03 '22 at 11:45
  • The relevant mathematical result here is known as the Stone Von Neumann theorem. – Valter Moretti Jul 03 '22 at 11:47
  • I assumed that $a^*$ is (a restriction of) the adjoint of $a$. This automatically implies that $X$ and $P$ are at least Hermitean, but not selfadjoint in general. So they are not assumed to be observables. – Valter Moretti Jul 03 '22 at 11:50
  • I mean the author assumes X and P to be observables, in addition to the commutation relation in my question which I thought was the only assumption made by the author. – eternalstudent Jul 03 '22 at 11:56