In regards to the Kullback information (also here), I'm trying to prove that:
$$K[p_1,p_2] = \int dx \ p_1(x,t) \ ln\frac{p_1(x,t)}{p_2(x,t)}$$
is non-negative, whereby $p_1(x,t)$ and $p_2(x,t)$ are any two probability densities. Therefore, I've introduced a function:
$$g(x) = x-1-ln(x)$$
for which $g(x) \geq 0$ applies. I now want to rewrite the functional $K[p_1,p_2]$ as follows:
$$\int dx \ p_1(x,t) \ ln[R(x,t)] = \int dx \ p_1(x,t) \ g\left[\frac{1}{R(x,t)}\right]$$
If I insert the function $R(x,t) = \frac{p_1(x,t)}{p_2(x,t)}$ into the right-hand side of the equation I get:
$$\int dx \ p_1(x,t) \ g\left[\frac{1}{R(x,t)}\right] = \int dx \ p_1 \left(\frac{p_2}{p_1}-1-ln\frac{p_2}{p_1}\right) = \int dx \left(p_2-p_1+p_1 \ ln\frac{p_1}{p_2}\right)$$
which now is the point I'm not sure how to go on, to get the equality of the equations.
The only case where the left and right-hand sides are equal occurs, if $p_1(x,t) = p_2(x,t)$ and so both sides would be zero.
So I wanted to ask if anyone could give me a hint what I'm missing here?