$\newcommand{\dd}{{\rm d}}$ I have a question which arises from looking at the impact free Boltzmann equation.
Let $(\vec{x},\vec{v})$ be a vector in our phase space $\Gamma^N = \mathbb{R}^{6N}$. The dynamics of a state are determined by the distribution function $f(\vec{x}, \vec{v}, t)$. Where $f(\vec{x}, \vec{v}, t) \dd^3x\, \dd^3v$ is the amount of particles at time $t$ in the volume element $\dd^3x\, \dd^3v$.
To derive the impact free Boltzmann equation we simply have to equate the time derivative of the volume-integral of $f$ to the flow of particles out of that volume (the amount of particles going out of a certain phase space volume determine how the state goes on in time).
This means: $$\int_V \frac{\partial}{\partial t} f(\vec{x}, \vec{v}, t) \dd V = - \int_V \nabla_{\vec{x}, \vec{v}}((\vec{v},\vec{a})f(\vec{x}, \vec{v}, t))\dd V$$
This is where my question arises. Why is the right side of the equation the flow of particles out of $\dd V$? $(\vec{v},\vec{a})$ is the time derivative of $(\vec{x}, \vec{v})$, but I still don't see it, can somebody give me some pointers what I have to read about to get an intuitive and mathematical feeling for why this is right?