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In a light source (like filament of bulb) there are various atoms and as such the things are deemed to be randomised. So there must be a phase difference between each of the wavetrains emitted by the atoms. Logically is it correct to argue that there would be a wave having same amplitude but phase difference of pi corresponding to each wave? Obviously this must be wrong otherwise by supresposition of all these individual waves, net effect would be zero, and we wouldn't be able to see!

P.S. For the very valuable readers, I wish to request that it is a high school students struggle of understanding things, and if my question is a bit too stupid, do please say it.

Gurjot Singh
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In a light source (like filament of bulb) there are various atoms and as such the things are deemed to be randomised.

True

So there must be a phase difference between each of the wavetrains emitted by the atoms.

This is the wrong concept. Each individual atom emits one photon at a time, not a wavetrain. There is a complex way zillions of photons ( atoms are of the order on $10^{23}$, avogadro's number, in your lamp filament) add up to visible light, the ones that have the appropriate phases to build up that particular wavetrain. This link may help.

It needs years of studying physics to understand that.(There is also the extra complication of how the eye sees the colors, called color perception.)

So light has a wave nature but it rides on the particle nature of photons, and that is why

anna v
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