It's usually stated that "astrophysical black holes are expected to have non-zero angular momentum, due to their formation via collapse of rotating stellar objects". In other words: rotating stellar objects carry orbital angular momentum, which is expected to be in the final black hole configuration.
However, the Kerr solution doesn't carry an orbital angular momentum, but the computation of the ADM angular momentum only provides a Pauli-Lubanski contribution, which is supposed to represent the intrinsic angular momentum of a system in General Relativity:
$W_\mu=\frac{1}{2}\epsilon_{\mu\nu\rho\sigma}J^{\nu\rho}P^{\sigma}$
Where is the orbital angular momentum in the astrophysical black hole created after the collapse? If the astrophysical object only has orbital angular momentum in the collapse, where does the intrinsic angular momentum of the Kerr black hole come from? Or is the usual interpretation of the Pauli-Lubanski contribution in General Relativity wrong?
Therefore, if a stellar object has orbital angular momentum (and obviously we know they do), does the resulting astrophysical black hole have orbital angular momentum? It's a very clear question.
– Albert_RD Aug 10 '22 at 14:48I'm sorry but obviously all those implications would be totally surprising, as you can see.
– Albert_RD Aug 10 '22 at 15:37The Earth rotation is not due to the fermionic or bosonic nature of the Earth, but to the orbital angular momentum.
On the other hand, it's usually accepted that Kerr metric describes astrophysical black holes, but all this looks a big problem. Any answer?
– Albert_RD Aug 10 '22 at 17:21