I was reading https://arxiv.org/abs/0909.0859 and came across this statement at the end of Chapter 2:
"It can be shown that the effective potential defined in terms of the Wilsonian effective action is equal to the effective potential extracted from the more familiar 1-Particle Irreducible (1-PI) effective action defined in perturbation theory—at least for a QFT with a mass gap."
I was wondering where I could find a derivation or intuitive explanation for the equivalence of effective potential from 1PI effective action and Wilsonian effective action for QFT with a mass gap?
