From wiki
To quantify geodesic deviation, one begins by setting up a family of closely spaced geodesics indexed by a continuous variable s and parametrized by an affine parameter $\tau$. That is, for each fixed $s$, the curve swept out by $\gamma _s(\tau)$ as τ varies is a geodesic. When considering the geodesic of a massive object, it is often convenient to choose $\tau$ to be the object's proper time. If $x^μ(s, τ)$ are the coordinates of the geodesic $\gamma_s(\tau)$, then the tangent vector of this geodesic is:
$$ T^\mu = \frac{\partial x^\mu(s,\tau)}{\partial \tau} $$
If $\tau$ is the proper time, then $T_\mu$ is the four-velocity of the object traveling along the geodesic. One can also define a deviation vector, which is the displacement of two objects traveling along two infinitesimally separated geodesics:
$$ X^\mu = \frac{\partial x^\mu(s,\tau)}{\partial s} $$
Now, naively
$$ v^\mu = T^\beta \nabla_\beta X^\mu$$
Should $v^\mu$ be the relative velocity? If so, how does that fit in with this definition of relative velocity? (when their geodesics intersect)
$$ v:=-\frac{1}{g(u^′,u)} u^′ - u \tag{1} $$
I feel I've managed to confuse myself.