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Suppose the angular acceleration velocity of a body as measured in a fixed inertial frame (with fixed basis $\big\{\hat X_1,\hat X_2,\hat X_3\big\}$) is $\vec\omega$ with direction $\hat \omega$.

Next, suppose we consider the body frame, with a rotating basis $\big\{\hat x_1, \hat x_2, \hat x_3\big\}$.

I initially thought that since angular velocity rotates with the body frame, then the direction of angular velocity will always be the same, i.e. $\hat\omega\cdot \hat x_i$ is fixed in time. That way, angular velocity simply represents the axis about which the body frame rotates, and the angles between $\hat x_i$ and $\hat \omega$ are constant in time.

However, this interpretation has a problem since $$\bigg(\dfrac{d\hat \omega}{dt}\bigg)_\mathrm{fixed} = \bigg( \dfrac{d\hat \omega}{dt}\bigg)_\mathrm{rot}+\vec\omega\times\hat \omega$$ implies that $\big(\frac{d\hat \omega}{dt}\big)_\mathrm{fixed} = \big( \frac{d\hat \omega}{dt}\big)_\mathrm{rot}$. So, that means $\hat\omega$ can't be fixed in the body frame, but I don't understand why that is so?

Why would angular velocity direction change with respect to the $\hat x_i$ axis? Don't we track the rotation of the $\hat x_i$ axis based on the orientation of $\vec\omega$?

Why can’t $\hat\omega$ be fixed in the body frame but change in the inertial one? Intuitively I can’t make sense of this.

kricheli
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user256872
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  • Could you elaborate on what's the difference between inertial frame and body fixed frame? I've never heard the second one being used so they sound the same to me. – Reet Jaiswal Oct 11 '22 at 01:23
  • @ReetJaiswal The inertial frame is fixed in space. The body frame rotates with the body and its axes are usually aligned with the body's principal axes – user256872 Oct 15 '22 at 09:08
  • (Minor point) "angular velocity simply represents the axis about which the body frame rotates" is not exactly correct. The axis of rotation is a straight line that is characterized by its direction and a position relative to the coordinate origin. The angular velocity does not contain the latter.
  • – kricheli Oct 15 '22 at 12:26
  • (I've deleted some of my earlier comments since they were obsolete after more carefully reading a sloppily written question.) Still remains: 3. Where do you take the formula from/what's it for? (If the formula implies that angular acceleration is the same in both frames, maybe it's only valid in frames that have zero angular acceleration with respect to each other and your using it under different conditions is causing your confusion...) – kricheli Oct 15 '22 at 12:38
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    If I understood correctly, a physical example to intuit is better than a page of calculations, as earthlings (observer O), we believed for centuries that the sun revolves around the earth (Ptolemy's system), but it is the reverse which is true (Copernic system, observer O' on the sun), all is relative, the angular speed is constant compared to the observer considers himself at rest (fixed). – The Tiler Oct 15 '22 at 15:41