1

We say that momentum is the measure of how a body is moving or the quantity of movement inside a body

But what this definition really mean? This terms are very vague

$p=mv$,why the movement inside the body depend on it's mass?

Qmechanic
  • 201,751
Mans
  • 301
  • 1
  • 7

5 Answers5

5

(In classical mechanics), the definition of momentum is $\vec{p}=m\vec{v}$.

The reason this is a good definition is because it is useful. In particular, the momentum of a collection of particles that are not in an external potential is conserved. Conserved quantities make it possible to understand aspects of the behavior of a system without solving complicated equations.

My advice would be not to get stuck on any philosophical musings on "why this definition." You can make any definition you want; the reason definitions stick around and make it into textbooks is because they are useful and help us solve problems.

The above reasoning is good enough reason to justify the definition of momentum -- we make a classical mechanics definition, and we see a benefit of using that definition to solve classical mechanics problems. But in fact, momentum is in some sense even better than it needs to be. In particular, when we generalize classical mechanics by (a) introducing relativity, and (b) moving to quantum mechanics, we find that many concepts like force or velocity do not have nice translations into those more general frameworks, but momentum does.

Andrew
  • 48,573
3

The definition is simply $\mathbf{p} = m \mathbf{v}$.

In classical mechanics, this quantity is conserved in absence of an external net force, since the second principle of dynamics reads

$\dfrac{d \mathbf{p}}{dt} = \mathbf{F}^{ext}$,

and thus $\mathbf{p}(t) = \text{const.}$ if $\mathbf{F}^{ext} = \mathbf{0}$.

In order to understand the meaning of the mass in the momentum, you need to evaluate the influence a force (and the impulse of the force, i.e. its integral in time) in changing the momentum

$\displaystyle m (\mathbf{v}_1 - \mathbf{v}_0) = \mathbf{p}_1 - \mathbf{p}_0 = \int_{t_0}^{t_1} \dfrac{d \mathbf{p}}{dt} dt = \int_{t_0}^{t_1} \mathbf{F}^{ext}(t) dt = I$.

basics
  • 8,365
  • Well it's more hard to stop a truck than a tennis ball, then the momentum should be defined strength to stop an object?? – Mans Nov 03 '22 at 23:42
  • strength x times, as you can see in the integral above, defined as the impulse of a force. you can apply a weaker force, but you need a longer time interval to get the same variation of momentum – basics Nov 03 '22 at 23:43
  • But what is momentum after all ? We didn't yet have an accurate definition. All what we have said that's the quantity of motion which is an vague term and provide an intuitive example that stopping a truck is more hard to stop an tennis ball – Mans Nov 03 '22 at 23:49
  • @Mans - the question of momentum is a deep one actually. – John Alexiou Nov 03 '22 at 23:50
  • We're close to go deep into philosophy, I guess. – basics Nov 03 '22 at 23:51
  • @Mans it is not always "more hard" to stop a truck than a tennis ball. It depends on the velocity of those objects. A tennis ball moving at 0.95 times the speed of light is harder to stop than a truck moving 1mm/hour. – hft Nov 03 '22 at 23:52
  • Mans, you have been provided with a accurate definition of momentum in the context of non-relativistic classical mechanics by @basics in their answer. More generally $\vec p = \frac{\partial L}{\partial \vec v}$, where $L$ is the Lagrangian. – hft Nov 03 '22 at 23:54
  • @hft you're right. But there was a comment of mine before (now misteriously disappeared), with the comparison of stopping a tennis ball of $m = 50 g$ travelling at $100 km/h$ and stopping a truck of $10000 kg$ running at the same speed $100 km/h$. It was the first comment under my answer, to get a clear understanding of the presence of the mass in the momentum expression. – basics Nov 03 '22 at 23:54
  • @JohnAlexiou I respectfully disagree. OP's question is not a "deep" question. It is a bad question in my opinion. – hft Nov 03 '22 at 23:57
  • Maybe the answers will try to touch on something "deep," but OP's question is decidedly not. – hft Nov 03 '22 at 23:58
  • To me, we can state that is a useful definition (given above) of a physical quantity, with the properties listed above, that naturally arises in a good model (good model = agreement with experiments, easy model) of classical mechanics, that can be used to explain in a simple way the experimental observations and the behavior of nature – basics Nov 03 '22 at 23:58
  • @basics well I understand that if two objects move with the same velocity but one of them is more massive it will be more difficult to stop it , but can you illustrate what is the linkage between this example and the mass in the momentum expression? – Mans Nov 04 '22 at 08:59
2

An object's momentum is the product of its mass and its velocity. $$\vec P = m \vec v$$ Nothing vague about it.

Why is this referred to as the "quantity of motion"? That's more of a history os science question.

M. Enns
  • 8,747
  • "quantity of motion" could be a bad tranlsation from some latin languages. As an example, in Italian the tranlsation of "momentum" is "quantità di moto" – basics Nov 03 '22 at 23:39
2

There are two sorts of answers you could go for.

First, remember that forces are defined as something that makes a motion not linear and uniform for a point-like system. The next question is, if you apply a given force to a variety of systems, do they all react the same, i.e. do their respective motions are modified identically? If that were true, then Newton's second law would be: $$\frac{d\vec{v}}{dt}=\vec{F}$$

But of course this doesn't match reality. Heavier system are less affected. This means that mass has a role to play in the way velocity is affected by forces.

Trials and errors led to the conclusion that the useful quantity inside the derivative had to be the product $m\vec{v}$, at least in simple cases (when there isn't any electromagnetic field).

This is especially useful when studying collisions. If you throw a ball with a given velocity against a wall, not much will happen. But if you throw a truck with the same velocity, the wall will likely be destroyed. So collisions aren't just a matter of velocity. Again, the product $m\vec{v}$ proved to be the appropriate quantity, i.e. the one that is conserved during the collision.

Finally, a more modern answer is: $m\vec{v}$ is the conserved quantity that appears due to the fact that the laws of physics are the same at every point (one use of Noether's theorem).

Miyase
  • 6,152
  • 21
  • 23
  • 37
  • Well then does when we defined it as the quantity of movement we meant that a body with high quantity of movement will have a more impact and this impact obviously depends on Mass of the body and it's velocity,,well I understand it in that way,,but if we say it's just the quantity of motion depend mass and velocity well it's obvious to depend on velocity but how did we know that it will depend on Mass ? The only thing that is logical to me is what I've said in the first my comment – Mans Nov 03 '22 at 23:24
1

Simple answer:

Usually, you consider the time that you're applying a force. Some combination of force and time is basically my idea of "strength". That combination should allow variation in force over time, so it should be an integral. This integral formula gives $Ft$ for constant force. Because $Ft$ is $\Delta mv,$ this momentum is basically how much strength you need to stop an object. The "quantity of motion" is basically proportional to the amount of strength required to stop the object, since I'm pretty sure nobody would set speed limits for something as light as a tennis ball because they aren't that dangerous.

  • 1
    well I agree with you and that's will solve my problem but momentum is stated in a way that's the quantity of motion and when there is more mass there is more motion,well how did we concluded that and on what basis,why did we say when there is more mass there is more motion? It's logical to say it with velocity – Mans Nov 03 '22 at 23:33