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I am unfamiliar with QFT. It is described often that an electron, for instance, in QFT is the smallest amplitude displacement in the electron field.

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(https://gravityandlevity.wordpress.com/2015/08/20/a-childrens-picture-book-introduction-to-quantum-field-theory/)

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I would like to know how it is possible to "direct" a wave in a particular direction, embodied by an electron moving from location A to location B?

In the animation above, the wave will naturally spread out equally in all direction. By what mechanism is it possible to direct the electron wave to spread preferentially in one direction and less in all the other directions?

ACuriousMind
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James
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1 Answers1

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The idea of a quantum field as a bunch of oscillators is really quite bad an analogy if you want to use it to reason about how quantum field theory actually works, see this question and this question. However, this is quite irrelevant in the context of this question because this question isn't actually about how quantum field theory works, it's just about how quantum mechanics works - that we can model a free particle by a wavefunction that obeys a similar wave equation to classical waves is after all the "wave mechanics" approach to elementary quantum mechanics, not something particular to QFT.

The question seems to think "the position" of a particle to be associated with a relatively narrow "spike", and that particles should always have this kind of wavefunction because after all we observe particles to be localized. This is not at all how quantum mechanics works - in principle the wavefunction of a particle can be arbitrarily spread out, and only when we measure position we get some sharply localized result and force the wavefunction of the particle to start again from being a spike at the location where we measured it. There does not need to be an identifiable "position" of the particle prior to measurement, not even approximately, and there is no motion in the traditional sense involved with this action.

If your instinct is to ask "how" the measurement does this, exactly, then that's the realm of the measurement problem, to which standard quantum mechanics just gives no answer at all - modeling "how" this happens is not required to describe what happens. The wavefunction simply gives the probability amplitude to find a particle in a particular location if we look. If we don't look (where "look" might mean any sort of interaction with the particle that allows inference about its position), we can't assign a definite position to it and the wavefunction may remain arbitrarily spread out.

And indeed, when you take a sharply localized spiky wavefunction for a free particle and just don't measure position for a while, the wavefunction of that particle will spread out exactly like a classical wave - computing this is a popular exercise in elementary quantum mechanics textbooks.

ACuriousMind
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  • apologies, i'm seriously confused now. Isn't probabilistic wavefunction solely a QM concept, and QFT field theory purports to explain how the wavefunction came about from underlying fields? If so, why does a field possess the probabilistic wavefunction found in QM? – James Nov 25 '22 at 20:07
  • @James No, that is not at all how quantum field theory works, and it is not supposed to "explain wavefunctions". The kinds of things quantum field theory explains that normal QM cannot is the quantum nature of electromagnetism or how special relativity + QM fit together or how elementary particles can react with other elementary particles to create completely different particles ("scattering", e.g. electron+position annihilation into photons). – ACuriousMind Nov 25 '22 at 20:10
  • thank you. I appreciate this, the Socratic (or maybe Dora's) method for learning is often best for me. From wiki, "QFT treats particles as excited states (also called quanta) of their underlying quantum fields, which are more fundamental than the particles." Ultimately, I just need to know how an electron is encoded into this field. Suppose there is a single electron hovering in front of me. How is this particular electron's quantum field waves encoded onto the electron field around me? – James Nov 25 '22 at 20:17
  • @James I'm afraid that is also not how it works (see the answers I've linked about this idea of being excitations in a field just being an analogy). QFT does really not make such straightforward ontological claims, and I really don't think you can appreciate what's going on without actually learning the mathematical formalism of it. Particles are not "encoded onto quantum fields". Quantum fields are operator-valued mathematical objects, not some sort of substrate/ether that could literally be "excited". – ACuriousMind Nov 25 '22 at 20:22
  • thank you. Just one last question before i look up QFT operators: Do quantum field spaces correspond to real physical spaces in our world, or does it operate on entirely mathematical spaces with no relation to locations/spaces in the real world? – James Nov 25 '22 at 20:25
  • @James: The operators act on abstract mathematical spaces - Hilbert spaces, the same as in regular QM. However, we imagine assigning an operator to each point in real, physical space as a way to model the physics therein, just as a classical field assigns there a number, vector, or tensor. Then we describe the field's motion as these operators changing with time, i.e. the Heisenberg picture is most "naturally" used in this context. – The_Sympathizer Nov 25 '22 at 22:54