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When gravity is not a force but an effect of mass bending the curvature of space, why do masses bend the curvature of the space in the first place?

The reasoning as it is demonstrated now seems circular to me: Gravity is not a force, rather empirical entities don't "feel" gravity, all they do is following the space (and time) which are bent in the presence of masses.. Okay, but why? Why do masses do that? Why do masses force space to bend? I guess this can't be explained empiracally (problem of induction/münchhausen trilemma)?

Qmechanic
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    Do you know Agrippa's trilemma? If yes, then you know there can't be a "why" to anything. As stated, your question does not belong to this site but to Philosophy stackexchange. – Jeanbaptiste Roux Dec 02 '22 at 13:31
  • We use that model because it fits the phenomena. This is physics, not math or philosophy: the phenomena drive our understanding. – John Doty Dec 02 '22 at 13:40
  • I am having difficulty approaching "why" for a physics question. Can you give an example of another place in physics where a "why" is answered in a manner you find convincing? – Boba Fit Dec 02 '22 at 13:55
  • Would be not better to ask "how" instead of "why"? – JanG Dec 03 '22 at 09:49

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