Why is linear velocity is cross product of angular velocity and position?
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5Please do not post images of texts you want to quote, but type it out instead so it is readable for all users and so that it can be indexed by search engines. For formulae, use MathJax instead. – ACuriousMind Dec 19 '22 at 23:12
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Refer to, for example, IE Irodov, Fundamental laws of mechanics, chapter 1 – GedankenExperimentalist Dec 20 '22 at 00:08
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Some background info on the use of cross products in mechanics. – John Alexiou Dec 20 '22 at 14:12
4 Answers
If you take $\bf d\theta$ to be the (infinitesimal) angle swept about the rotation axis (about axial vector $\bf\omega$ in diagram) after a small displacement $d\bf r_j'$ then looking at the diagram, you can form the cross product $$\tag 1d\bf r_j'=d\theta\times r_j'$$
If this displacement occurs in a time interval given by $dt$ and you divide both sides of equation (1) by $dt$ you get $$\bf\frac{d\bf r_j'}{dt}=\frac{d\theta}{dt}\times r_j'$$ or $$\bf v=\omega\times r$$

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2D case
the components of the position vector to the point P, given in inertial system are
\begin{align*} &\vec{R}=\begin{bmatrix} x \\ y \\ z \\ \end{bmatrix}= \underbrace{\begin{bmatrix} \cos(\phi(t)) & -\sin(\phi(t)) & 0 \\ \sin(\phi(t)) & \cos(\phi(t)) & 0 \\ 0 & 0 &1 \\ \end{bmatrix}}_{\mathbf S}\,\begin{bmatrix} u_x \\ u_y \\ 0 \\ \end{bmatrix} \end{align*}
thus the velocity
\begin{align*} &\vec{v}=\frac{d}{dt}\,\vec{R}=\frac{d}{dt}\,\phi(t) \begin{bmatrix} -\sin(\phi(t)) & -\cos(\phi(t)) & 0 \\ \cos(\phi(t)) & -\sin(\phi(t)) & 0 \\ 0 & 0 &0 \\ \end{bmatrix}\,\begin{bmatrix} u_x \\ u_y \\ 0 \\ \end{bmatrix}=\vec{\omega}\times\vec{R}\quad,\text{where}\\ & \vec{\omega}= \begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ \frac{d}{dt}\,\phi(t) \\ \end{bmatrix} \end{align*}
3D case \begin{align*} & \vec{R}=\mathbf{S}\left[~\phi_x~,\phi_y,~\phi_z~\right]\,\vec{u} \quad\Rightarrow\\ &\vec v=\vec{\dot{R}}=\underbrace{\left[\frac{\partial\,\mathbf{S} }{\partial \phi_x}\,\dot{\phi}_x+ \frac{\partial\,\mathbf{S} }{\partial \phi_y}\,\dot{\phi}_y+ \frac{\partial \,\mathbf{S}}{\partial \phi_z}\,\dot{\phi}_z\right]}_{\mathbf{\dot{S}}}\,\vec u \overset{!}{=}\vec{\omega}\,\times\vec{R}\\ &\text{where}\quad \left[ \begin {array}{ccc} 0&-\omega_{{z}}&\omega_{{y}} \\ \omega_{{z}}&0&-\omega_{{x}}\\ -\omega_{{y}}&\omega_{{x}}&0\end {array} \right]=\mathbf{\dot{S}}\mathbf{S}^T \end{align*}
- $\mathbf S~$ is the transformation matrix between body-system and inertial-system

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It's true by definition, there's really nothing more to it than that.
Angular velocity does not have to be represented by a vector, though it can be in 3 dimensions. We choose to represent it by the vector
$$\vec{w} = \vec{r} \times \vec{v}\tag1$$
And therefore following the cyclic properties of any cross-product, it must be true that
$$\vec{v} = \vec{w} \times \vec{r}\tag2$$

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I am not sure about equation 1 and also about the property you mentioned. Firstly, the dimensions of LHS and RHS don't work out in equation 1. And taking $\vec\omega\perp\vec v\perp\vec r$, we get by putting equation 1 in 2 that $\vert\vec v \vert=\vert(\vec r\times\vec v)\times\vec r\vert = vr^2$ or $r=1$. – GedankenExperimentalist Dec 20 '22 at 00:17
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@GedankenExperimentalist yes I'm handwaving a bit, should be $\vec{w} = \frac{\vec{r}}{r^2} \times \vec{v}$ (hence why you're getting r = 1), but the goal was to keep it simple for readers to understand. – Señor O Dec 20 '22 at 06:31
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1Your equation (1) is wrong. If you intended on writing it as in the above comment, why didn’t you? It may cause confusion. Cheers – joseph h Apr 18 '23 at 23:00
Angular velocity is a vector quantity and has both a magnitude and a direction. The direction is the same as the the angular displacement direction from which we defined the angular velocity. Where r is position vector and linear velocity is also vector quantity. The resultent of vector product of any two vectors is a vector quantity.