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Do virtual particles (which are generated from quantum fluctuations) have negative mass? Because virtual particles have negative energy which due to the Energy-mass equivalence causes mass to be negative too.

If this is wrong I think the reason would be "because probably $E=mc^2$ is not applicable to Quantum mechanics"

Note: Real particles have positive energy and virtual particles have a negative energy unless/until it is near something with an extremely strong gravity such as black holes

  • The answers (and comments) here should be helpful: https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/221842/123208 – PM 2Ring Jan 09 '23 at 14:31
  • Mass is a parameter in the field theory Lagrangian, you can see it as a property of the classical (or quantum) field. "Virtual particles" is semantics related to certain mathematical expressions, in particular Feynman diagrams. More here: https://physics.stackexchange.com/a/389646/226902 "Real particles have positive and fixed invariant mass. Virtual particles can have any value of invariant mass allowed within the limits of integration, where they are defined." In short: virtual particles are "off-shell". – Quillo Jan 09 '23 at 14:38
  • "off-shell" is also defined in the very good answer of Frederic Thomas: a particle is "off-shell" if it is a "perturbation" in the field that does not follow the classical equation of motion defined by the classical Lagrangian. Sometimes it is said that quantum fields "vibrate" beyond the classical solution because of virtual particles. I personally prefer the other way round: virtual particles are a way to describe such quantum fluctuations. – Quillo Jan 09 '23 at 14:57
  • $p$ is the 4-momentum and $c$ is the speed of light. The dispersion relation is the relationship between frequency and wave vector (or wave length): https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dispersion_relation – Quillo Jan 09 '23 at 15:47
  • This PBS SpaceTime video might help - Hawking Radiation – mmesser314 Jan 09 '23 at 16:26
  • Thanks, @mmesser314 –  Jan 09 '23 at 16:28
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    Thanks, @WilliamMartens –  Jan 10 '23 at 06:39

2 Answers2

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Virtual particles do not fulfill the dispersion relation for a single relativistic particle $p^2\not = m^2$ or if the rest mass of the concerned particle is zero (for instance a photon) $p^2\not =0$ ($p^2= p^\mu p_\mu$ is a short-cut for the 4-momentum $p^\mu$ squared).

Virtual particles are also often off-shell, because they are not on the hyperboloid defined by $m^2 = p_0^2 -\mathbf{p}^2\equiv p^2$ (note that an equation of $m^2 = y^2-x^2$ defines a hyperboloid).

A particle that fulfills $p^2= m^2$ (the dispersion relation) is called on-shell and is therefore not virtual.

Due to this terminology we don't assume a strange value for the mass in order to reinforce the dispersion relation. It is preferred to abandon the dispersion relation for virtual particles, but keep their mass equal to their rest mass.

In this post the convention $c=1$ is used.

Note that the use of virtual particles as intermediate states is a kind of trick, so they have very little in common with real particles (that fulfill the dispersion relation).

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    $p_0=\frac{hf}{c}$ and $|\mathbf{p}|=\frac{h}{\lambda}$ with all constants reinstaured. – Frederic Thomas Jan 09 '23 at 15:47
  • Thanks a lot!. In this case Dispersion relation means the relation between frequency and λ (wavelength), Right? –  Jan 09 '23 at 15:48
  • $P$ is 4-momentum, a relativistic 4-vector $P^\mu =(E/c,\mathbf{p})$. – Frederic Thomas Jan 09 '23 at 15:50
  • @ScienceAJ Working with $c=\hbar=1$ you could write the dispersion relation as $m^2=\omega^2-k^2$ with $\omega=2\pi f,,k=2\pi/\lambda$. – J.G. Jan 09 '23 at 16:40
  • Thanks, @J.G.. However what is ℏ and how can c which i assume is the speed of light be 1? –  Jan 09 '23 at 17:08
  • Setting constants of nature to 1 changes just the units, for $c=1$ one measures distance in time units, which happens already in astronomy by using the distance unit lightyear. For other constants as $\hbar$ it is similar. – Frederic Thomas Jan 09 '23 at 17:37
  • @ScienceAJ The Dirac constant $\hbar=h/(2\pi)$ with $h$ the Planck constant. In SI units $m^2c^4=\hbar^2(\omega^2-c^2k^2)$; but since powers of $c,,\hbar$ can be inferred from dimensional analysis, it's helpful to work in units satisfying $c=\hbar=1$. – J.G. Jan 09 '23 at 17:37
  • Thanks, @FredericThomas. Got it –  Jan 10 '23 at 05:21
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Feynman diagrams conserve energy and momentum at the vertices, so at tree level, the one virtual particle's $q_{\mu}$ is determined by the real external particles. This is where the Mandelstam variables become useful (see fig).

enter image description here

Consider a $s$-channel process, such as:

$$ e^+ + e^- \rightarrow \gamma^* \rightarrow X $$

where the $*$ indicated virtual and $X$ is a fermion/anti-fermion pair.

In the lab frame:

$$ p^{\mu}_1 = (E, \vec p) $$ $$ p^{\mu}_2 = (E, -\vec p) $$

so the virtual photon has:

$$ q^{\mu} = p^{\mu}_1 + p^{\mu}_2 = (2E, 0, 0, 0) $$

So it's a massive photon at rest. Clearly virtual.

If you consider $t$-channel 180 degree scattering in the above case, then the final states are:

$$ p^{\mu}_3 = (E, -\vec p) $$ $$ p^{\mu}_4 = (E, +\vec p) $$

so that the exchanged photon has:

$$ q_{\mu} = p^{\mu}_4 - p^{\mu}_2 = (0, 2\vec p) $$

This is generally written as:

$$ Q^2 = -(q^{\mu}q_{\mu}) = 4||\vec p||^2 \approx 4E^2 $$

where the approximation is for $E \gg m_e$.

So here, the virtual photon has no energy, but large momentum (and negative mass-squared)...defintely virtual.

For any 2-particle EM scattering process, there is a frame (the Breit Frame) where the exchanged photon has no energy, and transfers 3 momentum.

Hence the interpretation is that the virtual photon probes structures with size $\hbar c/\sqrt{Q^2}$.

Finally, for identical particles you have $u$-channel in which the final state external lines are swapped. In 180 degree backscattering of indetical particles, you can work out that $q^{\mu} = (0,0,0,0)$, so no scattering occurs at all...that is, you can't distinguish forward and backward elastic scattering.

At higher order you have loops, and you have to integrate over all energy and momenta that are conserved at vertices, so you get way off-shell.

JEB
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  • Thanks a lot!. So Photon's are virtual particles too? –  Jan 10 '23 at 06:41
  • @ScienceAJ there is no such thing as a "virtual particle". This is terminology related to some lines in a diagram. Some lines are virtual, others not. Some lines related to photons are virtual. Same for all the other elementary particles. Physical states in QFT only allow real particles. Virtual particles are just links in the diagram, a mathematical entity appearing in perturbation theory. The terminology is still alive just because of historical reasons, nothing deep about virtualy particles in modern QFT. See this answer: https://physics.stackexchange.com/a/221863/226902 – Quillo Jan 10 '23 at 10:29
  • @Quillo Thanks. –  Jan 10 '23 at 10:35
  • @ScienceAJ In Feynman's path integral formulation, the fields take all possible paths btw initial and final states. The diagrams are then a formal perturbative expansion, so Quillo is correct: they don't exist. Nevertheless, they provide a good way to understand the interaction. See for example the Rosenbluth Separation. The virtual photon has well defined longitudinal/transverse polarization, which can be varied (by lab kinematics) at fixed $Q^2$, thereby separating the electric and magnetic responses of the target (proton or nucleus, usually). – JEB Jan 10 '23 at 16:13
  • Thanks a lot! @JEB. If the sum over histories given by Sir Richard feymann is involved, then Virtual particles only exist in Imaginary time –  Jan 14 '23 at 07:47