I've read from Figueroa-O'Farrill's The Theory of Induced Representations in Field Theory and this answer that massless particles of helicity $h$ must be associated with fields transforming under the $\left(m,n\right)$ Lorentz representation where $n-m=h$.
In the case of the $h = \pm 1$ photon, we sum the $\left(1,0\right)$ and $\left(0,1\right)$ representations, but gauge symmetry allows us to define and use a potential transforming under $\left(\tfrac{1}{2},\tfrac{1}{2}\right)$ (with two independent components).
Is there a similar line of reasoning to show why the $h = \pm 2$ graviton is associated with a $\left(1,1\right)$ potential (with two independent components)?