Suppose we have primary fields $A$ and $B$ which have the OPE,
$$A(z) B(w) = \frac{1}{z-w} = -B(z)A(w), \quad |z| > |w|,\tag{1}$$
so they have fermionic statistics. Now I was curious how this would affect computing their commutation relations, using the usual contour integral approach. If $A$ has weight $h$ and $B$ has weight $h'$, I can get the modes using,
$$A_m = \oint \mathrm dz \, z^{m+h-1} A(z), \quad B_n = \oint \mathrm dw\, w^{n+h'-1} B(w),\tag{2}$$
where the contour integrals encircle $z=0$ and $w=0$ respectively. Then normally we would write,
$$[A_n,B_n] = \oint_{C_1} \mathrm dw \oint_{C_2} \mathrm dz \, z^{m+h-1} w^{n+h'-1}A(z) B(w),\tag{3}$$
where $C_1$ is an integral around $w=0$ and $C_2$ is an integral around $z=w$. This much has been explained in previous questions, but I think this wouldn't be valid for fermionic statistics? Since in writing out the commutator, you swap the fields and pick up a minus sign, but then I am not sure which contour integration you would carry out.
I would appreciate any clarification because I cannot find an example where this is carried out for the free fermion, for example.