To show where the resonances in cross sections come from, one usually considers the exact propagator in the interacting theory, which for a scalar is $$iG(p^2)=\frac{i}{p^2-m_R^2+\Sigma(p^2)+i\epsilon}\tag{24.47}$$ where $i\Sigma$ is the sum of all 1PI self-energy graphs and $m_R$ is the renormalized mass. For an unstable particle $\Sigma$ becomes complex and one defines the pole mass by $m_P^2=m_R^2-Re\Sigma$ which then leads to the Breit-Wigner distribution in a cross section with width $2m_P \Gamma$, if $\Gamma$ is the decay rate of the particle.
However, I read chapter 24.3 "Polology" in Schwartz, where he shows that correlation functions always have poles when on-shell intermediate particles can be produced. If there is a one-particle state $\lvert\Psi\rangle$ of mass $m_\Psi$ in the theory then the correlation function $G_n(p_1,...,p_n)$ has a term proportional to $$\frac{1}{p^2-m_\Psi^2+i\epsilon}\tag{24.105}$$ for $p\approx m_\Psi$, if $p$ is the sum of all incoming 4-momenta. The state $\lvert\Psi\rangle$ doesn't have to be an elementary particle, it could also be a composite particle of the theory, but we assumed that $m_\Psi$ is the actual mass of this state, connected to the energy by $m_\Psi^2=E_\Psi^2-\vec{p_{\Psi}}^2 $ so it is definitely real. Also we have already included all interactions in the calculation, no perturbation theory was used. Now this looks to me like the cross-section will have an actual divergence at $p^2=m_\Psi^2$ instead of a resonant peak of width $\Gamma$. How could the mass become complex to yield a Breit Wigner distribution?