I was reading about the intermediate axis theorem and its mathematical proof. Typically one starts with the torque-free Euler's equations $$ \begin{align} 0&=I_1\dot\omega_1 + (I_3-I_2)\omega_3\omega_2\\ 0&=I_2\dot\omega_2 + (I_1-I_3)\omega_1\omega_3\\ 0&=I_3\dot\omega_3 + (I_2-I_1)\omega_2\omega_1\\ \end{align} $$ with $I_3 > I_2 > I_1$. Then we start with some initial angular velocity with components $(\epsilon_1,\,\omega_2,\,\epsilon_3)$ in the rotating body frame of reference, with $\epsilon_1,\epsilon_3 \ll \omega_2.$
We first find that $\dot\omega_2 \approx 0$ for all times such that $\epsilon_1,\epsilon_3 \ll \omega_2.$ Then, taking a time scale on which $\omega_2$ is approximately constant, we attain a differential equation of the form $\ddot\epsilon_1=k_1^2\epsilon_1,$ and similarly $\ddot\epsilon_1=k_3^2\epsilon_1.$ (Take $k_1, k_3 > 0.$)
At this point every text I have found states that the solutions to these differential equations are exponential growth and thus the rotation is unstable. While I agree that the exponentially growths $\epsilon_1\sim e^{k_1t},\,\epsilon_3\sim e^{k_3t}$ may be valid solutions to the above differential equations, so too are the exponential decays $\epsilon_1\sim e^{-k_1t},\,\epsilon_3\sim e^{-k_3t}.$ In particular, if $\omega_2>0,$ these exponential decays seem to also be valid solutions to Euler's equations above.
So my question is: why can't axis 1 and axis 3 both have exponentially decaying solutions instead of exponentially growing solutions when rotating near the intermediate axis? If exponentially decaying solutions were possible, this would mean that the intermediate axis can undergo stable rotations even with a small error initially, but this contradicts what I have read in my textbook and on the internet (and what I have seen with my own eyes).