I was reading about Feynman's sprinkler problem, and came across a paper that discussed irreversibility in ideal fluids. It quoted the fact that
When a real fluid is expelled quickly from a tube, it forms a jet separated from the surrounding fluid by a thin, turbulent layer. On the other hand, when the same fluid is sucked into the tube, it comes in from all directions, forming a sink-like flow.
And then came to the conclusion that
The asymmetry between outflow and inflow therefore does not depend on viscous dissipation, but rather on the experimenter’s limited control of initial and boundary conditions. This illustrates ... how irreversibility may arise in systems whose microscopic dynamics are fully reversible.
I am not sure what irreversibility means here. Is it just that the system isn't invariant under time reversal? But I think water being expelled and water being sucked in are not "the same process under time reversal" to begin with, since in the former there is angular momentum, while in the latter there is none.
Also, when viscosity is not considered (as in the paper's statement), ideal fluids are described by the Euler equation: $$ \left( \frac{\partial}{\partial t} + \boldsymbol{u}\cdot\nabla \right) \boldsymbol{u} = -\frac{\nabla P}{\rho} + \boldsymbol{g}$$ Which is definitely time-invariant to me, as the transformation $t\mapsto -t$ doesn't change the equation. Then how can there be irreversible processes arising from this assumption?