I'm getting confused with the convention for the metric that describes a (planar) AdS black hole in $1+d$ dimensions ($1$ timelike, $d$ spacelike).
The most common definition seems to be the one as in https://arxiv.org/abs/2210.09647 Eq (2.6):
$$ds^2 = -f(r)\, dt^2 + \frac{1}{f(r)}dr^2 + r^2d\vec{x}^2 \qquad\text{with}\qquad f(r) = \frac{r^2}{L^2}\left(1-\frac{r_h^d}{r^d}\right)$$
where $r = r_h$ is the location of the event horizon.
Now I want to compare this to the typical definition in 2D ($d=1$) as in https://arxiv.org/abs/2110.05522 Eq (4.8):
$$ds^2 = -f(r)\,dt^2 + \frac{1}{f(r)}dr^2 \qquad\text{with}\qquad f(r) = r^2-1$$
but I don't see how to get there from the previous equation. I know it is common to absorb $r_h$ and $L$ by rescaling $r\to \frac{r}{r_h}$ and $f(r)\to \frac{L^2}{r_h^2}f(r)$, however, the scaling with $d$ is incorrect (it looks as if one has to use $d=2$ to get to this result but that would be a 3D black hole which it is not).
I'm suspecting that the geometry has to do with it, more specifically the fact that in 2D there is no curvature singularity at $r=0$, but I don't see how.
Any help would be greatly appreciated (in particular if there is a reference to a paper that treats this in more detail, because I don't find any).