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From quantum mechanics, we know that the tensor product of two spin-half representations would give us spin-1, and spin-0 reps, i.e, $$(1/2,0)\otimes(1/2,0)\cong(1,0)\oplus(0,0)$$ I want to know what happens in case $(1/2,0)\otimes(0,1/2)$.

(I have seen in some places that $(1/2,0)\otimes(0,1/2)$ is equivalent to $(1/2 , 1/2)$, but I just don't understand how... )

Alex
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    Possible duplicates: https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/149455/2451 and links therein. – Qmechanic Jul 12 '23 at 06:38
  • Ah thank you for referring to the mentioned link... apart from the reference which you mentioned in the mentioned answer, can you suggest where I can read the required representation theory for SUSY.... @Qmechanic – Alex Jul 12 '23 at 14:23
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    “equivalent to $(1/2,1,2)$” Do you mean $(1/2, 1/2)$? – Ghoster Jul 13 '23 at 00:52
  • @Ghoster yes (1/2, 1/2) – Alex Jul 20 '23 at 09:40

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