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Newton's second law claims that $F=ma$. In terms of quantum mechanics, the equality can be written as $ \frac{d\langle p \rangle}{dt} = -\langle \nabla V(x) \rangle$. How can I prove this with non-relativistic Schrodinger Equation?

I've calculated the expectation of $p=mv$, and tried to take the derivative under the integral. And there I'm stuck.

Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir
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arax
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    Possible duplicates: http://physics.stackexchange.com/q/17651/2451 and links therein. – Qmechanic Sep 14 '13 at 11:07
  • @Qmechanic thanks! I searched the site but somehow didn't find it. But actually I still have some difficulties with the deduction – arax Sep 14 '13 at 11:08
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    It's OK, I found the way to do the maths here http://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=248520, by searching "Ehrenfest Theorem" – arax Sep 14 '13 at 11:16

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