I don’t understand Noether’s theorem… there is nothing to prove?
If I understand Noether’s theorem correctly it says: if there is coordinate where the Lagrangian is invariant, then the conjugate momentum is conserved. However, this follows almost immediately from the Euler–Lagrange equation:
$$\frac{d}{dt}\frac{\partial L}{\partial\dot{q}}=\frac{\partial L}{\partial q}$$
If the Lagrangian is does not change in the direction of the coordinate $q$, we can describe this as:
$$\frac{\partial L}{\partial q}=0$$
According to the Euler–Lagrange equation, we then have;
$$\frac{d}{dt}\frac{\partial L}{\partial\dot{q}}=\frac{\partial L}{\partial q}=0$$
$$\frac{d}{dt}\frac{\partial L}{\partial\dot{q}}=0$$ $$\frac{d}{dt}p_q=0$$ $$p_q=\mathrm{constant}$$
In other words we have already shown that if the Lagrangian does not change in the coordinate $q$, the related momentum to $q$ which is $p_q$ is conserved. But isn't this then already Noether's theorem?
A problem here is if you choose a coordinate system that does not contain a coordinate basis vector that points in the direction where the Lagrangian is invariant. We could have chosen a wrong basis. However, you can just change the basis and the proof is similar.
Now imagine we have a coordinate system ${q_1,q_2,\ \ldots,\ q_i}$ where for every direction, the Lagrangian isn’t invariant. Then we have
$$\frac{\partial L}{\partial q_1}\neq0$$ $$\frac{\partial L}{\partial q_2}\neq0$$ $$\ldots$$
So there isn't any conserved conjugate momentum, or any conserved Noether’s charge. Now we are told that there is a certain direction ${\hat{q}}^\ast\ $ that the Lagrangian is invariant. However, our coordinate system ${q_1,q_2,\ \ldots,\ q_i}$ does not have a unit vector that points in that exact direction.
Then you can just perform a change of basis in such a way that we have ${q^\ast,q_2^\prime,q_3^\prime,..}$ and then perform the following again.
Then how to find the form of the Noether’s charge you can just project the total momentum vector in the first q system onto the direction of $\hat{q}$: $$Q=\vec{p}\cdot{\hat{q}}^\ast$$
$$Q=\begin{bmatrix} p_x \,\\ p_y \\ \ldots \end{bmatrix}^T \cdot {\hat{q}}^\ast $$
So my problem is basically that the conclusion of Noether's theorem really trivially falls out of setting the Euler-Lagrange equations equal to $0$. In the worst case you would have to do a coordinate transformation before you can do that. This suggests that I am missing something important, because this seems too easy for a proof.
I am probably misunderstanding something fundamental of the theorem. Where does my reasoning fail?