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Let $H$ be the Hamiltonian operator. Since $H$ is self-adjoint, by Stone's theorem there is a strongly continuous one-parameter unitary group $U(t)$ such that $U(t) = e^{-itH}$. Mathematically this much is clear to me.

It is well known that the family $\{U(t)\}_{t \geq 0}$ correspond to time evolution, but how would one reach this conclusion? What is the physical argument that the time evolution of a particle is given by an operator whose infinitesimal generator is the Hamiltonian? I assume this is taken as a postulate, but even then, how would one arrive to concluding such a postulate?

Also, how is time encoded into $U(t)$? For example, we interpret $U(t)$ as evolving a particle to its state at time $t$. However on a mathematical level $t$ is just a number with no units, how is the physical concept of, for example, a second encoded in this operator? Is it implicitly encoded into the Hamiltonian?

Buzz
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CBBAM
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    Also in classical mechanics, the Hamiltonian is the generator of time translations... Units come into play e.g. via $\hbar$ (which you've omitted in your expression). – Tobias Fünke Aug 30 '23 at 20:59
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    Very smilar: https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/741632/how-do-we-know-that-the-operator-ut-e-ith-hbar-corresponds-to-time – Buzz Aug 30 '23 at 21:19
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    OP: In fact, how is this question different from the one linked by @Buzz ? – ZeroTheHero Aug 30 '23 at 21:38
  • Also related: https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/333323/60644 – Noiralef Aug 31 '23 at 00:17

3 Answers3

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You are correct that the starting point for deriving the Schrödinger equation is the unitary generator of time translations $\hat{U}(t)$ (though your explicit formula does not include the $\hbar$ in the exponential for some reason). The fact that the operator is unitary means that you can write it as the exponential of an infinitesimal generator that is Hermitian. The sign and unit-converting constant $\hbar$ are simply dictated by the identification you want to make for the physical meaning of the operator. You can actually show that the operators, which come from the generators of space, momentum, and time translations, $\hat{p}_j = -i\hbar \frac{\partial}{\partial x_j}$ in the position representation, $\hat{x}_j = i\hbar \frac{\partial}{\partial p_j}$ in the momentum representation, and $\hat{H} = i\hbar \frac{\partial}{\partial t}$ satisfy a quantum mechanical analogue of Hamilton's equations in classical mechanics, \begin{align*} &\frac{d\hat{p}_j}{dt} = \frac{\partial \hat{H}}{\partial x_j} &&\frac{d\hat{x}_j}{dt} = \frac{\partial\hat{H}}{\partial p_j} \end{align*} The way that you actually do this is a bit involved, but you can somewhat easily derive the general relationships in the position and momentum representations for arbitrary $\hat{A}$ along with the generalized Heisenberg equation of motion for an operator in the Heisenberg picture of quantum mechanics, \begin{align*} \frac{\partial \hat{A}}{\partial x_j} &= -\frac{i}{\hbar} \left[ \hat{A}, \hat{p}_j \right] \text{ (Position representation)} \\ \frac{\partial \hat{A}}{\partial p_j} &= \frac{i}{\hbar} \left[ \hat{A}, \hat{x}_j \right] \text{ (Momentum representation)} \\ \frac{d\hat{A}(t)}{dt} &= \frac{i}{\hbar} \left[\hat{H}(t), \hat{A}(t) \right] + \left( \frac{\partial \hat{A}}{\partial t} \right)_H \end{align*} where $\hat{A}(t)$ is the operator in the Heisenberg formulation sandwiched between the time evolution operators and the subscript $H$ means that this whole quantity in $(\cdot)$ is in the Heisenberg picture. From these relationships you can show the desired results.

Unfortunately, time is simply treated as a parameter in quantum mechanics. The value of $\hbar$ also controls the time evolution just as it controls the values of the energy, momentum, etc. that you get from a quantum mechanical calculation. This value is, of course, fixed by experiment in reality, so there is no contradiction for the results you will obtain.

Buzz
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Matt Hanson
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You have to start somewhere; you either postulate directly what the time evolution is, or you write down some equation (typically a differential equation) whose solution tells you what the time evolution is.

I’ll start with the wavefunction formalism for Schrodinger’s equation; I believe this was one of the first formulations for giving the evolution equation for the system. The PDE is \begin{align} i\partial_t\psi&=(-\Delta+V)\psi \end{align} (I set $\hbar=1$) along with suitable initial conditions $\psi(t=0,\cdot)=\psi_0$.

Next, once we have the Hilbert space formalism in place, Schrodinger’s equation takes the form of \begin{align} i\psi’(t)&=H(\psi(t)), \end{align} where $H$ is the Hamiltonian operator on a Hilbert space $\mathcal{H}$; you also specify some initial condition $\psi(0)=\psi_0$. This is a first order ODE in the Hilbert space $\mathcal{H}$. If $H$ was bounded, this ODE has the unique solution $\psi(t)=\exp(-itH)\psi_0$. Then, $U(t):=\exp(-itH)$ is unitary, so we can write the solution as $\psi(t)=U(t)\psi_0$. We can also write this as $\psi(t_2)=U(t_2-t_1)\psi(t_1)$ for all $t_1,t_2\in\Bbb{R}$.


Btw as an aside, I should say that the theory of differential equations in Banach spaces is quite standard. Fix a Banach space $E$ and an open interval $I\subset\Bbb{R}$. Suppose we have an affine first order IVP \begin{align} \begin{cases} x’(t)&=A(t)[x(t)]+b(t)\quad\text{for $t\in I$}\\ x(t_0)&=x_0 \end{cases} \tag{$*$} \end{align} where $b:I\to E$ and $A:I\to\text{End}(E)$ are continuous functions. To ‘solve’ this ODE, one typically takes a small detour. Consider the $\text{End}(E)$-valued IVP ($s\in I$ is the ‘initial parameter’) \begin{align} \begin{cases} S’(t)&=A(t)\circ S(t)\quad\text{for $t\in I$}\\ S’(s)&=\text{id}_E \end{cases} \end{align} The existence and uniqueness theorem for ODEs tells us there is a unique $C^1$ solution $t\mapsto R(t,s)$ of this IVP (and if $A(t)$ didn’t depend on $t$, then $R(t,s)=\exp((t-s)A)$, so $R(t,s)$ depends only on $t-s$). This is sometimes called the fundamental solution or the resolvent kernel. With this in mind, one can prove that the solution to $(*)$ is \begin{align} x(t)&=R(t,t_0)[x_0]+\int_{t_0}^tR(t,\lambda)[b(\lambda)]\,d\lambda\tag{$**$} \end{align}

The specifics here are not important. The point I’m trying to illustrate is that when considering affine differential equations like $(*)$, the fact that you get some parameter-dependent family of operators (here $R(t,s)$) which ‘propagate initial conditions’ (in the sense of $(**)$), is a completely standard phenomenon.

The extra thing you gain in QM is that (taking the Hamiltonian to be time-independent) time evolution is unitary.


In the unbounded case, you of course need the spectral theorem to make sense of things, and you have continuity/differentiability of the relevant objects in the strong operator topology rather than the operator norm topology (since this is not available in the unbounded case). And Stone’s theorem of course plays a key role for formulating these matters.

peek-a-boo
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First off, it's easier perhaps to argue for why the time evolution has to be unitary. The reason for this is that a unitary operator is precisely the kind of operator that is both invertible and which preserves vector norms. In particular, it preserves the "sum of all probabilities for the potential values of every physical parameter is 1" property which you sort of need by definition of how probability works, along with making sure that the physics of an isolated system is reversible.

That there then is some operator $\hat{H}$ such that $\hat{U}(t) = e^{i\hat{H} t}$ just follows then from the fact you can take operator logarithms (at least in suitably "well-behaved" cases.).

Now as for why $\hat{H}$ is a Hamiltonian. First off we need to understand what a Hamiltonian "is" - and to do that we need to understand the concept of a "generator of translation".

Suppose you have a function $f$ - not necessarily a wave function, this is just any function with $\mathrm{dom}(f) = \mathbb{R}$. Require $f$ to be differentiable. Then define

$$T_{\Delta x}[f] := x \mapsto f(x - \Delta x)$$

where we've used anonymous function notation to describe an operator (higher-order function) $T_{\Delta x}$ called the translation operator by $\Delta x$.

Now we know that by definition of the derivative, when $\Delta x \approx 0$,

$$(T_{\Delta x}[f])(x) \approx f(x) - \Delta x\ f'(x)$$

In particular, writing via the differential operator $D$,

$$T_{\Delta x}[f] \approx f - \Delta x\ D[f]$$

and thus in this regard we can say $D$ is the generator of infinitesimal translations, i.e. where we informally imagine $\Delta x$ to become $dx$, as in the usual sense of calculus.

Admittedly, it's kind of an odd usage of terminology or, at least, I've thought so, because to me it'd be more logical to imagine the fictitious $T_{dx}$ as a generator, since hte term generator in other mathematical contexts basically means "an element or elements you can use to reach all other elements of a structure by suitable repeated use of the structure's operations", such as in abstract algebra when we consider a cyclic group $G$ we call the primitive element $g$ the generator of $G$ because every element in the group can be described as $g^n = \underbrace{g \circ g \circ \cdots \circ g}_{\text{$n$ copies of "g"}}$. Ostensibly since "compositionally integrating" $T_{dx}$, would be more like this than adding up a bunch of applications of $D$, I'd say the former is what should be called the generator of the translations, but meh; that's how it is - the trick is this is what the term "generator of translations" means.

And so we can talk of a generator of translations for wave functions now $\psi_x : \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{C}$. In this case, though, we get even more weird and decide to include a factor $i$ in and say $-iD$, which becomes upon introduction of units $-i\hbar D$, as the generator of the translations and name it as momentum operator, $\hat{p}$.

The trick here now is this: what about time translations? Well, it turns out we can do the same thing: $iD$ will work perfectly okay as a generator of time translation in the same way when applied to a time series. And in fact, you see this very operator on the right hand side of the Schrodinger equation:

$$\hat{H} [|\psi\rangle(t)] = i \frac{d|\psi\rangle}{dt}$$

The problem is that, at least in non-relativistic quantum mechanics, time $t$ is not an observable operator(*), so the right hand side is not a bona fide operator in the Hilbert space of quantum vectors.

Now: $i \frac{d}{dt}$, or $i D$ if you prefer, applied to a time series is(**) a generator of temporal translations in the sense we have mentioned. But, because of the above, it's not an operator! And that's where Hamiltonians come in: A Hamiltonian is an operator which acts like $i \frac{d}{dt}$ but which is a bona fide Hilbert-space operator. And since a vector in Hilbert space gives one instant only, necessarily the Hamiltonian must literally "generate" the time evolution in that it must derive it from the present state.

Going back to our discussion of generators of translation, that means

$$|\psi\rangle(t + dt) = |\psi\rangle(t) - i [\hat{H} |\psi\rangle(t)]$$

and it should not be hard to see that since $|\psi\rangle(t + dt)$ also equals $\hat{U}^{dt} |\psi\rangle(t)$, and since $\hat{U}(dt) |\psi\rangle(t) = e^{i\hat{H} dt} |\psi\rangle(t)$, a quick Taylor expand followed by a quick use of Leibniz's "transcendental law of homogeneity", immediately produces the above.

TL;DR: The physical reason is evolution has to be unitary, so that probabilities keep making sense and that isolated systems' dynamics are fully reversible. The first is a mathematical necessity; the second is an empirical fact. And a Hamiltonian, by definition, is a bona fide Hilbert operator that can stand in the shoes of the "pseudo-operator" acting on histories, that we call the generator of temporal translation in itself. And using the mathematical definition of what that means, we see that the factor in the exponential must then be identified as that Hamiltonian.


(*) I hypothesize that this is because we should more "correctly" ascribe the parameter $t$ in the Schrodinger equation not to some externally-observable clock, but to the "inner subjective sense" of the agent which the the quantum theory is implicitly taking the viewpoint of.

(**) It follows from (*) that we should then reverse the sign, because the agent is in effect what is "actively" moving from past into future, hence we must translate the history the opposite direction. This is similar to the distinction between active and passive transformations and also - can't help but bring in some of my other fields of study here - conceptual temporal metaphors in human language; where linguists would talk of the "moving events" vs. "moving ego" perspective of conceptualizing the "flow of time". $-iD$ is the active-transformation or moving-events viewpoint, $iD$ is the passive-transformation or moving-ego viewpoint.