Assume we have a position vector $\mathbf r$ dictating the position of a particle in a rotating frame. Then, for a time dependent rotation matrix $\mathbf R(t)\in SO(3)$ that describes the motion of the particle, we can say that for the inertial frame, the particle's position $\mathbf r^*$ is $$\mathbf r^* = \mathbf R(t) \,\mathbf r$$ Likewise, it should follow pretty obviously that for particle's velocity $\mathbf v$ and acceleration $\mathbf a$ in its rotating frame, $$\mathbf v^* = \mathbf R(t)\, \mathbf v,\qquad \mathbf a^* = \mathbf R(t)\, \mathbf a$$
Again to clarify, $\mathbf x^*$ is the inertial frame, and $\mathbf x$ is the rotating frame.
Anyhow, I want to find the expression for the angular velocity tensor. For linear velocity, we can see that $$\mathbf v^* = \frac{d\mathbf r^*}{dt} = \mathbf R(t)\, \dot{\mathbf r} + \dot{\mathbf R}(t) \, \mathbf r$$
Since we know that for a rotation matrix, $\mathbf R^\intercal \mathbf R=I$, we can factor out a $\mathbf R(t)$ from above to get $$\mathbf v^* = \mathbf R(t)(\dot{\mathbf r} + \mathbf R^\intercal(t)\dot{\mathbf R}(t) \, \mathbf r)$$
This manipulation seems arbitrary, but then, apparently we somehow define the angular velocity tensor to be $$\Omega = \mathbf R^\intercal(t)\dot{\mathbf R}(t) \iff \mathbf v^* = \mathbf R(t)(\dot{\mathbf r} + \Omega \, \mathbf r) = \mathbf R(t)\, \mathbf v$$
This seems even more arbitrary, and honestly magical even that $\Omega$ even returns anything physically meaningful.
My question is basically, how does the definition $\Omega = \mathbf R^\intercal(t)\dot{\mathbf R}(t) $ "work" in a sense. What is the motivation for the definition, and why does it give us the angular velocity tensor? Intuitively, I want to think that it would instead be $\Omega = \dot{\mathbf R}(t)$, but obviously this isn't the case.
In addition, the angular velocity vector can be interpreted as a bivector or 2-vector because bivectors are isomorphic to skew-symmetric matrices and the angular velocity vector is skew-symmetric (which can be shown by differentiating $\mathbf R^\intercal \mathbf R=I$).
We know from the expression of $\mathbf v^*$ that $$\dot{\mathbf r} + \Omega \, \mathbf r = \mathbf v$$
If we look at the second term on the LHS, this is unusual because normally, we would have expressions like $$\tau_\text{bivector} = \mathbf r \wedge \mathbf F \tag{1}$$ where we wedge two vectors to return a bivector. If we take the Hodge dual, we can see the isomorphism between the bivector and vector cross product $$\star (\tau_\text{bivector}) = \star (\mathbf r \wedge \mathbf F) \iff \tau_{\text{axial vector}} = \mathbf r \times \mathbf F$$
Yet here, we somehow have an expression where we are mutiplying a bivector with a vector, and this multiplication operation
$$\Omega_{\text{bivector}} \,???\, \mathbf r_\text{vector}$$
which gives us a vector and also is isomorphic to the cross product (since the cross product formula is $\omega \times \mathbf r = \mathbf v$)
What is the interpretation for the multiplication of the bivector with a vector? Are we "wedging" a bivector with a vector (and if so, how does it work?)? Or, in general, what is this operation and how is it isomorphic to a cross product that somehow returns a regular vector?
The wikipedia article on the angualr velocity tensor has a section on this but I have never seen the idea of a musical isomorphism so I didn't quite understand it.